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plz give ur email so that we can form a group for those who want to give exam in may2007
preperation for acfd 2007
- Thread starter Acfd2007
- Start date
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I will take EE in may 2007. My email is: [email protected]
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- May 17, 2006
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i will write the exam in may 2007
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mu e mail is [email protected]
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Hello friends,
I too plan to take up EE exam, but need some info on how to apply, procedures, pre-requisite, location centre for exam. Kindly anyone give me some information on this.
Thanks in advance,
I too plan to take up EE exam, but need some info on how to apply, procedures, pre-requisite, location centre for exam. Kindly anyone give me some information on this.
Thanks in advance,
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I changed my exam date to 2007 my email address is [email protected]
- Joined
- Sep 24, 2006
- Messages
- 107
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1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth.
2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.
3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.
5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.
6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.
7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.
8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.
9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögrens syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis.
10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.
11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia.
13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis.
14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.
23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.
24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.
25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K. 26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.
29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.
30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth.
2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.
3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.
5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.
6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.
7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.
8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.
9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögrens syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis.
10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.
11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia.
13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis.
14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.
23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.
24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.
25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K. 26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.
29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.
30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.
- Joined
- Sep 7, 2006
- Messages
- 149
- Reaction score
- 0
1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth. +++++
2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.++++++
D. removal of all pulp horns.
3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.++++++
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.++++++
D. fusion.
5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.++++++++
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.
6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.+++++++
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.
7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees.+++++++ C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.
8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.
9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögrens syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.
11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.
12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.
13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium.
14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4)
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.
23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.
24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.
25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K. 26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.
29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.
30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.
correst me if wrong plz
rest later
best of luck
- Joined
- Sep 24, 2006
- Messages
- 107
- Reaction score
- 0
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.
23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.
24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.
25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K.
26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.
29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.
30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.
correst me if wrong plz
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.
23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.
24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.
25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K.
26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.
29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.
30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.
correst me if wrong plz
- Joined
- Dec 28, 2006
- Messages
- 1
- Reaction score
- 0
I want to join this group (for EE May 2007)
[email protected]
[email protected]
- Joined
- Apr 20, 2006
- Messages
- 186
- Reaction score
- 2
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
- Joined
- Sep 24, 2006
- Messages
- 107
- Reaction score
- 0
not a Osmotic diuretics
(a) Reduce sodium and water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
(b) Produce a diuresis limited by the glomerular filtration rate
(c) Frusemide is an osmotic diuretic
(d) Glucose can act as an osmotic diuretic
(e) Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic
(a) Reduce sodium and water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
(b) Produce a diuresis limited by the glomerular filtration rate
(c) Frusemide is an osmotic diuretic
(d) Glucose can act as an osmotic diuretic
(e) Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic
- Joined
- Sep 24, 2006
- Messages
- 107
- Reaction score
- 0
Grade I hypovolaemic shock
(a) Occurs when more than 40% of the circulating blood volume has been lost
(b) Tachycardia is a reliable clinical sign
(c) A fall in pulse pressure is observed
(d) Urine output is markedly reduced
(e) Capillary return is delayed
(a) Occurs when more than 40% of the circulating blood volume has been lost
(b) Tachycardia is a reliable clinical sign
(c) A fall in pulse pressure is observed
(d) Urine output is markedly reduced
(e) Capillary return is delayed
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During a trauma primary survey the following chest injuries should be identified
(a) Airway obstruction
(b) Tension pneumothorax
(c) Aortic disruption
(d) Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia
(e) Myocardial contusion
(a) Airway obstruction
(b) Tension pneumothorax
(c) Aortic disruption
(d) Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia
(e) Myocardial contusion
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Grade I hypovolaemic shock
(a) Occurs when more than 40% of the circulating blood volume has been lost
(b) Tachycardia is a reliable clinical sign
(c) A fall in pulse pressure is observed
(d) Urine output is markedly reduced
(e) Capillary return is delayed
(a) Occurs when more than 40% of the circulating blood volume has been lost
(b) Tachycardia is a reliable clinical sign
(c) A fall in pulse pressure is observed
(d) Urine output is markedly reduced
(e) Capillary return is delayed
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27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
ans. A - amalgam scrap may be stored in a jar containing fixer, so the answer is A.
ans. A - amalgam scrap may be stored in a jar containing fixer, so the answer is A.
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10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins
B'coz Acute osteomyletis have ill defined radiographic margins!! (Almost all acute lesion have ill defined radiographic margins b'coz of rapid progression of lesion) so it is not the right!!!!
As osteomyelitis is inflammtory lesion and fever is charectiristic feature of inflammation. while malignant neoplasn is not a inflammatory lesion unless it is secondaryly infected...So..The right answer is B) Associated with high fever.....
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Hi all ...
I will write the EE on May 07,my e-mail [email protected]
I will write the EE on May 07,my e-mail [email protected]
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1. A failing or ailing implant shows an increase in subgingival:
a. S. Mutans.
b. aerobic gram negative bacteria. c. anaerobic gram negative bacteria. d. black pigmented porphyrmonas.
2. A presurgical radiographic stent with vertical radiopaque indices at the center of each tooth position identifies:
a. the mesial-distal position of the proposed implant site. b. vital anatomical structures. c. the potential emergence profile. d. radiographic distortion.
3. Lowering mechanical stress to the crestal bone-implant interface can best be accomplished by the use of:
a. wide diameter implants (> 4.7 mm). b. long implants (> 12 mm). c. a cantilever prosthesis. d. smooth cylinder implants.
a. S. Mutans.
b. aerobic gram negative bacteria. c. anaerobic gram negative bacteria. d. black pigmented porphyrmonas.
2. A presurgical radiographic stent with vertical radiopaque indices at the center of each tooth position identifies:
a. the mesial-distal position of the proposed implant site. b. vital anatomical structures. c. the potential emergence profile. d. radiographic distortion.
3. Lowering mechanical stress to the crestal bone-implant interface can best be accomplished by the use of:
a. wide diameter implants (> 4.7 mm). b. long implants (> 12 mm). c. a cantilever prosthesis. d. smooth cylinder implants.
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[YOUTUBE][/YOUTUBE]Which of the following conditions does the science of Oral Pathology NOT treat? 1. Nature of the disease 2. Surgical procedures 3. Causes of the disease 4. Development of the disease
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above
When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above
When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750
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- 350
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Which of the following conditions does the science of Oral Pathology NOT treat? 1. Nature of the disease 2. Surgical procedures 3. Causes of the disease 4. Development of the disease
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above
When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above
When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750
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- Dec 16, 2006
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Which of the following conditions does the science of Oral Pathology NOT treat? 1. Nature of the disease 2. Surgical procedures 3. Causes of the disease 4. Development of the disease
Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer
When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth
When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth
About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500
correct me if i m wrong.
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Hi,I am preparing for part1 and would like to join the study group.My email is [email protected].
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6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.
It is posterior tooth with a clinical crowm that satisfies the requerements for retention and resistance.
10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. [COLOR="red"[/COLOR][/COLOR]][COLOR="Black"]B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
corect answer is A
A. 0.5mm subgingivally
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.
It is posterior tooth with a clinical crowm that satisfies the requerements for retention and resistance.
10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.
17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögrens syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.
21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. [COLOR="red"[/COLOR][/COLOR]][COLOR="Black"]B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
corect answer is A
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In the primary dentition the tooth surface most likely to decay:A. distal of first molar;B.distal of second molar;C.mesial of second molar
