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Zuhal

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68 yo male patient presents to your clinic with postprandial pain. X-ray below, whats the dx?

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polyarteritis nodosa. I knew there was something about the dilation and constrictions lol. or am i wrong

no, good job, you got it. PAN associated with HBV and affects medium sized vessels. Vasculitis is necrotizing arteritis with fibrinoid necrosis
 
Can someone explain subclavian steal briefly? I don't see it in first aid anywhere, but it sounds important haha.
 
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Proximally blocked carotid receives retrogade collateral circulation distal to blockage via vertebral a., "steals" perfusion from brain
 
damn lmao.

instead of sincerely asking for help, i should have said something like "Great job, now explain the pathogenesis"

That would have definitely worked

:thumbup: on being a good sport and not getting mad for trying to bring humor to the board
 
Proximally blocked carotid receives retrogade collateral circulation distal to blockage via vertebral a., "steals" perfusion from brain

thanks!

this actually helps me understand wikipedias description

" retrograde (reversed) flow of blood in the vertebral artery or the internal thoracic artery, due to a proximal stenosis (narrowing) and/or occlusion of the subclavian artery. The arm may be supplied by blood flowing in a retrograde direction down the vertebral artery at the expense of the vertebrobasilar circulation. This is called the subclavian steal."
 
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I have they are always metaphyseal(would I think would be distal end of diaphysis)? sorry for being nitpicky

lol. you are right.. the distal end of the diaphysis is the metaphysis...hope I don't make that mistake in my the actual exam... good question. Good luck hitting that FA today buddy! I'm going for NBME12
 
no idea, but I'd like to know. :thumbup:

that's the spirit ya ole chap...

both NF1 and 2 code for tumor suppressor genes by the names of neurofibromin & merlin, respectively.

ok, 1 more before I start pounding FA this morning:

little history: 1 year old who didn't receive any vaccinations. sick over past few days, had to be admitted to the NICU yesterday:

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looking at the 2nd pic looks like the adrenals are shot...im guessing waterhouse...baby has petechiae all over the body...

feel like im wrong, because haven't seen a question about waterhouse in a 1year old...more so a kid in the early double digits stage (ie 10, 11, 12, etc etc)
 
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lesion at letter C would cause what:

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multiple names for this...so not looking for something specific...:)
 
that's the spirit ya ole chap...

both NF1 and 2 code for tumor suppressor genes by the names of merlin and neurofibromin, respectively.



looking at the 2nd pic looks like the adrenals are shot...im guessing waterhouse...baby has petechiae all over the body...

feel like im wrong, because haven't seen a question about waterhouse in a 1year old...more so a kid in the early double digits stage (ie 10, 11, 12, etc etc)

you're right with the cause. I should have said the kid was 2 or 3, making the lack of immunization important. what typically causes FW syndrome?
 
you're right with the cause. I should have said the kid was 2 or 3, making the lack of immunization important. what typically causes FW syndrome?

neisseria meningitidis...basically causes collapse of the whole adrenal system. my statement about petechiae is actually incorrect, lol...forgot that G- bacteria, especially neisseria causes DIC...so that's probably what the kid is going through in the picture...
 
I have no idea, locked in syndrome?

C is pointing to CN 6...one of the 3 CN's located in the middle of the brainstem. the other two are CN3 and CN12. lesions to CN 6 usually lead to strabismus...where're you can't ABduct the eye. this case, the patient's left eye wouldn't be able to ABduct when asked to
 
yup...& for kids you can give succimer...now

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so the rest of us can get a score like yours....

okay :laugh: Now that I no longer need to take my mind off of an impending step 1 score, I promise not to answer any more questions in this thread. But if I'm bored, I might come back and contribute (questions). good luck everyone :thumbup:
 
okay :laugh: Now that I no longer need to take my mind off of an impending step 1 score, I promise not to answer any more questions in this thread. But if I'm bored, I might come back and contribute. good luck everyone :thumbup:

contribute with pictures & questions, but try to refrain from answering...if you don't mind...:oops:
 
okay :laugh: Now that I no longer need to take my mind off of an impending step 1 score, I promise not to answer any more questions in this thread. But if I'm bored, I might come back and contribute. good luck everyone :thumbup:

Congrats on your awesome score Suncrusher!
 
55 y/o smoker h/o HTN
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What's the most likely location of abnormality seen on CT?
 
No h/o of any penile ulcers or long extremities lol

AD can still happen without patient having syphilis or marfan's...

only other thing i can think of would be abdominal aortic aneurysm...below L2, but above L4
 
AD can still happen without patient having syphilis or marfan's...

only other thing i can think of would be abdominal aortic aneurysm...below L2, but above L4

That's it. Below the renal artery but above the aortic bifurcation
 
That's it. Below the renal artery but above the aortic bifurcation

tricky ?...if you hadn't given the 2nd clues...knee jerk would've been aortic dissection for sure...but i guess would also have to look for "tearing pain radiating to the back"

any clue on my image? ok...it's associated with turner's...should get it now :laugh:
 
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