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Ok, maybe i'm not using the legal wording. But I just googled Texas law.
http://law.onecle.com/texas/penal/21.11.00.html
"A person commits an offense if, with a child younger than 17 years and not the person's
spouse, whether the child is of the same or opposite sex"
Not that I agree that 17 cut off. It seems a little outdated, but the point is there is an age cut off for legal sex. And if it was illegal for under-aged children to have sex, then doesn't that automatically lays the legal responsibility on the parents?
You don't understand what you are reading. Per the chart I linked to, minors can ALREADY consent to reproductive health care services in Texas. Why do you think this is?