NBDE Part 2 Questions version 2.0

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Please post all questions concerning the NBDE Part 2 here in this thread. The first thread was closed due to it containing over 1000 posts, which slows down page loading on SDN.

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Which of the following materials is most likely to cause adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a deep cavity preparation?
1 dental amalgam
2 composite resin
3 calcium hydroxide
4 ZnOE
5 Polycarboxylate cement

Ans is 2 . according to released papers
 
can someone explain the buccal object rule when taking xrays?
It is simple.
Imagine X and Y are superimposing on a radiograph. this technique is to find out relative positions of X and Y ( lingual and buccal)
Just remember SLOB. ( Same side Lingual and Oppsite side Buccal)
think X moves to distal upon moving the cone to distal in second radiograph, X moved in the same direction as cone. so X is lingual to Y.
If X moved in mesial direction upon moving the cone in distal direction in the 2 nd radiograph, X is moving in oppsoite direction compare to cone. so X is in buccal to Y.
 
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Hi! Please help ...I'm taking my NBDE II in less than 10 days . If you have any recent review questions Please post them and I will post my test questions after my exam...it's a deal :thumbup: Please advise on what i should focus on. I've been reading the Kaplan review book but i just can't remember them. Should I just look at the released exam questions ? Please help !!! :eek: Thank You !!!
 
Thanks for the encouragement :) I know I should review the kaplan but it's just too long :sleep: and i don't have much time left :(
 
Ans is 2 . according to released papers

yes is agree thats y confused y it is composite resin and not amalgam can some one explain.

one more question i have doubt about of ortho:

All of the following r functional appliances except:

1 frankel

2 bionator

3 Clark's Twin Block

4 Herbst

5 Activator

6 Quad Helix
 
one more question i have doubt about of ortho:

All of the following r functional appliances except:

1 frankel

2 bionator

3 Clark's Twin Block

4 Herbst

5 Activator

6 Quad Helix :thumbup:
 
one more question i have doubt about of ortho:

All of the following r functional appliances except:

1 frankel

2 bionator

3 Clark's Twin Block

4 Herbst

5 Activator

6 Quad Helix :thumbup:

Another question of perio
In ahemisection the tooth is cut in a half.This technique is almost used exclusievly on :

1 Mandibular first and second premolars

2 Maxillary first and second molars

3 Maxillary caines

4 Man
 
one more question i have doubt about of ortho:

All of the following r functional appliances except:

1 frankel

2 bionator

3 Clark's Twin Block

4 Herbst

5 Activator

6 Quad Helix :thumbup:

Another question of perio
In ahemisection the tooth is cut in a half.This technique is almost used exclusievly on :

1 Mandibular first and second premolars

2 Maxillary first and second molars

3 Maxillary caines

4 Mandibular molars to treat class II OR III furcation invasion
 
Members don't see this ad :)
The answer for hemisection --- mandibular molar region!:thumbup:

PLEASE POST MORE QUESTIONS!
 
HI I HAVE DOUBTS ON THE FOLLOWING PLEASE HELP!

Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?

A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.

E. No treatment

When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the

A.. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.

C. base of pocket to the crest of the free gingiva
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.


In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue
regeneration" is most successful in treating

1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)

C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.


The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone

A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.

D. merges with the keratinized gingival at the mucogingival jx
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.


Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best

accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft. .
D. coronally positioned flap

E. free ginginval graft

The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called

A. remodeling
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.


The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth

A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely

D. vertically.

Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?

A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.

C. Odontoblastic processes
D. Cementoblasts.


Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has

A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.

C. plaque on his teeth
D. lactic acid in his mouth.


With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus
becomes predominantly populated by

A. gram-positive organisms.
B. gram-negative organisms.
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.


Which of the following microorganisms are most
frequently found in infected root canals?

A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D.. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.


An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of

A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.

D. plasma cells

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is
correct?

A. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic.

B. More freq consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk
C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from
the oral cavity is not significant.
D. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.


chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is

A. oxidation
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.


During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit

A. expansion
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.


Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,

1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material..

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


Sickle cell anemia is
A. a genetic disease.
B. caused by exposure to radiation.
C. a viral infection.
D. a drug reaction.
E. an auto-immune disease.


Abrasion is most commonly seen on the
A. lingual surface of posterior teeth.
B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth.
C. incisal edges.
D. facial surfaces of teeth.


Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with

1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by

A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.

D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation
E. radiographic examination.

Which of the following conditions is
characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers?

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.

B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.


The benign neoplasm that originates from
squamous epithelium is called a/an

A. adenoma.
B. choriocarcinoma.
C. chondroma.
D. lipoma.

E. papilloma

Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?

A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.


A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has

A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.

C. acute bacterial sialadenitis
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.


Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?

A. Lower lip
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.

Intermittent painful swelling in the
submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of

A. a ranula.

B. blockage of Wharton's duct
C. Ludwig's angina.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.


Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which
of the following?

A. Epulis fissuratum.
B. Lingual varicosities.

C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Median rhomboid glossitis.
E. Prominent fungiform papillae.


Which gingival manifestation(s) would be
expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?

1. Enlargement.
2. Bleeding.
3. Ulceration.
4. Atrophy.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age
of 30, the normal alveolar crest is

A. at the cej
B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction. .----ans
C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction.
D. not clearly distinguishable.


A 23 year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week
and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is

A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.

B. nocturnal bruxism
C. early osteoarthritis.
D. mandibular subluxation.


The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a
deep carious lesion may radiographically show

1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal
membrane.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment

When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A.. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction.
C. base of pocket to the crest of the free gingiva
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction.

In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingival at the mucogingival jx
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium.

Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft. .
D. coronally positioned flap :confused:
E. free ginginval graft

The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.

The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely
D. vertically.

Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes:confused:
D. Cementoblasts.

Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth
D. lactic acid in his mouth.

With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by
A. gram-positive organisms.
B. gram-negative organisms. :confused:
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.

Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D.. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.

An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells

Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct?
A. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic.
B. More freq consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk
C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant.
D. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.

chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation (also alcohol, adrenaline, analgesics, morphine)
B. reduction. (folic acid, chloramphenicol, halothane)
C. hydroxylation and oxidation. (acethylcholine, aspirine, atropine, penicillin, procaine, heroine)
D. sequestration in the body fats.

During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit
A. expansion
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.

Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material..
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Sickle cell anemia is
A. a genetic disease.
B. caused by exposure to radiation.
C. a viral infection.
D. a drug reaction.
E. an auto-immune disease.

Abrasion is most commonly seen on the
A. lingual surface of posterior teeth.
B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth.
C. incisal edges.
D. facial surfaces of teeth.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation
E. radiographic examination.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

The benign neoplasm that originates from squamous epithelium is called a/an
A. adenoma.
B. choriocarcinoma.
C. chondroma.
D. lipoma.
E. papilloma

Which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.

A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.

Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.

Intermittent painful swelling in the submandibular region that increases at mealtime is indicative of
A. a ranula.
B. blockage of Wharton’s duct
C. Ludwig's angina.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following?
A. Epulis fissuratum.
B. Lingual varicosities.
C. Squamous cell carcinoma :confused:
D. Median rhomboid glossitis.
E. Prominent fungiform papillae.

Which gingival manifestation(s) would be expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?
1. Enlargement.
2. Bleeding.
3. Ulceration.
4. Atrophy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30, the normal alveolar crest is
A. at the cej
B. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. .----ans
C. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction.
D. not clearly distinguishable.

A 23 year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism
C. early osteoarthritis.
D. mandibular subluxation.

The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may radiographically show
1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal membrane.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
n
A patient experiences prolonged postoperative bleeding following routine scaling and curettage. Which of the following laboratory tests are indicated?
(a) Prothrombin time
(b) Partial thromboplastin time
(c) Complete blood cell count
(d) Bleeding time
(e) Coagulation or clotting time

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (d) and (e) only
5. all of the above


Mouthwashes containing commonly used systemic antibiotics make ideal mouthwashes because systemic antibiotics show little tendency toward antibiotic sensitization when used topically.
1. Both statement and reason are correct and related
2. Both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
3. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT
4. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
5. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct


Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic solutions to
1. prevent circulatory collapse if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
2. prevent asthmatic attacks if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
3. increase the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site
4. decrease the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site


When a local anesthetic containing epinephrine is mistakenly injected into a blood vessel, the patient demonstrates
1. watery saliva
2. a slower heart rate
3. an increase in blood pressure
4. contraction of the muscles of mastication


Administration of pure oxygen to a patient with a depressed respiratory center can be dangerous because it may
1. damage lung tissue
2. destroy the respiratory center
3. overstmulate the respiratory center
4. depress the release of carbon dioxide
5. remove the remaining stimulus for respiration
 
n
A patient experiences prolonged postoperative bleeding following routine scaling and curettage. Which of the following laboratory tests are indicated?
(a) Prothrombin time
(b) Partial thromboplastin time
(c) Complete blood cell count
(d) Bleeding time
(e) Coagulation or clotting time

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (d) and (e) only
5. all of the above

Mouthwashes containing commonly used systemic antibiotics make ideal mouthwashes because systemic antibiotics show little tendency toward antibiotic sensitization when used topically.
1. Both statement and reason are correct and related
2. Both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
3. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT
4. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
5. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct


Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic solutions to
1. prevent circulatory collapse if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
2. prevent asthmatic attacks if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
3. increase the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site
4. decrease the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site


When a local anesthetic containing epinephrine is mistakenly injected into a blood vessel, the patient demonstrates
1. watery saliva
2. a slower heart rate
3. an increase in blood pressure
4. contraction of the muscles of mastication


Administration of pure oxygen to a patient with a depressed respiratory center can be dangerous because it may
1. damage lung tissue
2. destroy the respiratory center
3. overstmulate the respiratory center
4. depress the release of carbon dioxide
5. remove the remaining stimulus for respiration
 
Yes antibiotics, candida infection, and oral rinses cause hairy tongue, as well as poor oral hygiene.
Hello everyone,
Can you answer this question?
Compared with unstimulated saliva,stimulated saliva is benifical of high level of
A calcium B phosphate C PH D mucin
Thanks
 
Hello everyone,
Can you answer this question?
Compared with unstimulated saliva,stimulated saliva is benifical of high level of
A calcium B phosphate C PH D mucin
Thanks
yes,it is ph as unstimulated saliva have high inorganic phosphate but less bicarbonic acid as compare to stimulated saliva. stimulated saliva have high ph which is more important for buffering action for prevention of caries.
please do correct me if i am wrong
 
sorry if this is obvious; is there a key posted anywhere for the NBDE !! released item booklet (2006); I have tried to search but there are just too many posts to possibly scan through.
thanks

Hey thanks anyway, just found them.
 
I thought stimulated saliva has more of an acidic ph so it can help break down food, correct me if I'm wrong
 
n
A patient experiences prolonged postoperative bleeding following routine scaling and curettage. Which of the following laboratory tests are indicated?
(a) Prothrombin time
(b) Partial thromboplastin time
(c) Complete blood cell count
(d) Bleeding time
(e) Coagulation or clotting time

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (d) and (e) only
5. all of the above

Mouthwashes containing commonly used systemic antibiotics make ideal mouthwashes because systemic antibiotics show little tendency toward antibiotic sensitization when used topically.
1. Both statement and reason are correct and related
2. Both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
3. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT
4. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
5. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct


Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic solutions to
1. prevent circulatory collapse if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
2. prevent asthmatic attacks if the local anesthetic is accidentally injected intravenously
3. increase the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site
4. decrease the rate of diffusion and absorption from the injection site:)


When a local anesthetic containing epinephrine is mistakenly injected into a blood vessel, the patient demonstrates
1. watery saliva
2. a slower heart rate
3. an increase in blood pressure:)
4. contraction of the muscles of mastication


Administration of pure oxygen to a patient with a depressed respiratory center can be dangerous because it may
1. damage lung tissue
2. destroy the respiratory center
3. overstmulate the respiratory center
4. depress the release of carbon dioxide
5. remove the remaining stimulus for respiration
if i m wrong then correct me
 
ELLIS CLASS I - involves enamel
ELLIS CLASS II - involves enamel and dentin - pt complains of temperature sen
ELLIS CLASS III - extends into the pulp- pt may have severe pain or no pain due to loss of nerve function - have a visible area of pink, red, or even blood at the center of the tooth.

SEE YOU ON SATURDAY AT NOON!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!:thumbup: STUDY WELL!;)
 
Which of the following is LEAST affected by occlusal trauma?

1. Gingival attachment

2. Alveolar bone

3 Periodontal ligament

4 cementum
 
ELLIS CLASS I - involves enamel
ELLIS CLASS II - involves enamel and dentin - pt complains of temperature sen
ELLIS CLASS III - extends into the pulp- pt may have severe pain or no pain due to loss of nerve function - have a visible area of pink, red, or even blood at the center of the tooth.

SEE YOU ON SATURDAY AT NOON!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!:thumbup: STUDY WELL!;)
what stand for class V,VI,VII,VIII?
 
Which of the following is LEAST affected by occlusal trauma?

1. Gingival attachment

2. Alveolar bone

3 Periodontal ligament

4 cementum

definetly----- A:thumbup:
because you will definetly have:
loss of alveolar bone
increase in tooth mobility
increase in width of the periodontal ligament space
EFFECT ON oblique fibers of the periodontal ligament
EFFECT ON cementum
EFFECT apical area of the periodontal ligament
 
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm

4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light

5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band

6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years

7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional



8) occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true


12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma::confused:
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength:confused:
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength



15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression:thumbup:
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior


which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.:

occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
 
which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery
 
ANSWERS ARE IN BOLD!

2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm

4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light

5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band

6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years

7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional



8) occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true


12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma:
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
it should be osteosarcoma

13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength



15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior


which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture

occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
 
which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click:thumbup:
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgerywhich of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click:thumbup:
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery:thumbup:
b/c osseous surgery is designed to provide access to root surface for debridements
 
the drinking water supply of a community has a natural f level of .6ppm.the f level is raised by .4ppm. tooth decay is expected to decrease by what % after 7 years?
ans is 40% how????
 
Which of the following causes bone loss?

1 C3a, C5a

2 Endotoxin

3 Interleukin

4 B glucorinidase
 
Pt has been px amoxicilin for knee sx now it needs to have a tooth extracted what should be done?
-nothing
-double amoxicilin
-triple amoxicilin
-clindamycin 600mg

PLEASE REPLY TO THIS QUESTION
 
Pt has been px amoxicilin for knee sx now it needs to have a tooth extracted what should be done?
-nothing:thumbup:
-double amoxicilin
-triple amoxicilin
-clindamycin 600mg

PLEASE REPLY TO THIS QUESTION
ithink if a patient is taking antibiotics then no need to give em again,
when r u givin exam.
 
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.A

3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mmA
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm

4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heatA
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light

5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band: since a overhang at gingival margin, it is more wedge problem than matrix band. If it was more coronal problem, I would've chosen poor adaptation of the matrix band.

6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years: 23 month….a little less than 2 year old
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years

7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical A
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional



8) occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility A

10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true A
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true


12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma:
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
Ossifying Sarcoma is more like an answer for this.
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength: A



15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression A
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior


which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.:A

occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations A
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
 
Hi Guys,
Please Help Me With This Question

Why Is Tetracycline Given In Pt With Gingivitis?
 
i read that primary teeth r in occlusion at age 2.5-3 years. is that right? or is it 23 months?
 
Only after scaling you can prescribe the tetracycline as it will leave the concentration in gingival pocket.I dont think without cleaning the area it will help by any means. thanks.:thumbup:

Hi Guys,
Please Help Me With This Question

Why Is Tetracycline Given In Pt With Gingivitis?
 
Some where on the website i had found that if you score 275 out of 500 then its a passing score in NBDE-2 so go for it if you have a target
 
1) what best describe porcelain?

low compressive
high tensile
biocompatible
high impact strength

2) after a gingivectomy how does the site heal
from the epithelium of the pocket
epithelium of the adjacent alveolar muscle
endothelium of the blood vessel
primary intention

3) how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite?
osteotomy
anterior maxillary surgery
le fort I
le fort II

4)spread of infection from gingiva to the bone is via
traumatic occlusion
vasculature of the periosteum
periodontal ligament
vasculature of the gingiva

5) which tooth has the most cervical enamal projections
mandibular molar
mandibular premolar
maxillary molar
maxillary premolar

6) outliers control
mean
median
mode
standard deviation

7) in releaving a buckle frenum for a mand denture which muscle is released
caninus
orbiqularis
masseter

8) Fracture in the mandible which muscle move the jaw forward and medial
Medial pterygoid
lateral pterygoin
masseter
anterior belly of digastric

9) which cement easiest to clean
resin cement
GI
polycarboxylic
zinc phosphate

10) keeping the Kvp and Msa the same and changing from D film to E, to keep the same intensity one should
increase the Kvp and MsA
decrease both
increase kvp and decrease MsA
increase Msa and decrease Kvp

11) which of the following is the endocrine involvement that is related to jaw deformity
acromegaly
paget
cherubism
albrights

12) if someone cant take ibuprofen what can u give them
aspirin
demoral
pentazocaine

13)what is the purpose of oil in the house foundation? (radiology)

14)which of the following not associated with periodontal disease in the primary dentition?
Downs
Steven's johnson
cycloneutropenia

15) small white lesion on the tooth the whole life when did it happen?
hypercalcification during first 6-12 months
hypercalcification during natal

16) which fluoride causes the most staining
APF
NaF
SnF2

17) class V and something about whats best material
low modulus of elasticity
high modulus of elasticity

18) most common complaint of sagittal split

19) when do you fill the tooth with CaOH?
1st week into splinting
after 14 days splinting
resorption

20)Patient presents to clinic with a palatal constriction of 3mm, would the crossbit be
shifted to the affected side
shifted to the unaffected side
bilateral

21) which cyst is most likely to become neoplastic
dentigerous
residual
radicular

22)Anterior triangle of the face infection has the most danger of going to
cavarnous sinus
cervical lymph nodes

23) what asthma drug causes oral fungal infection

24) why give hydralazin with chloral hydrate

25) best characteristic of high noble alloy? elastic modulus

26) when given IA injection, which muscle does the needle passes? is it medial Ptyrigoid

27) where would the secondary radiation comes from which affects the operator?
radiation that bounces off the wall?

28) Most people affected by perio disease in the US
black male
black female
white male
white female

29) packing cord where is the most recession
buccal interproximal
lingual interproximal
 
HI THE ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS ARE:
1) what best describe porcelain?

low compressive
high tensile
biocompatible---ans
high impact strength

2) after a gingivectomy how does the site heal
from the epithelium of the pocket
epithelium of the adjacent alveolar muscle
endothelium of the blood vessel
primary intention---ans

3) how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite?
osteotomy
anterior maxillary surgery
le fort I---ans
le fort II

4)spread of infection from gingiva to the bone is via
traumatic occlusion
vasculature of the periosteum---ans
periodontal ligament
vasculature of the gingiva

5) which tooth has the most cervical enamal projections
mandibular molar---ans (2nd molar)
mandibular premolar
maxillary molar
maxillary premolar

6) outliers control :confused:
mean
median
mode
standard deviation

7) in releaving a buckle frenum for a mand denture which muscle is released
caninus
orbiqularis
masseter
IT IS ACTUALLY TRIANGULARIS

8) Fracture in the mandible which muscle move the jaw forward and medial
Medial pterygoid
lateral pterygoin---ans
masseter
anterior belly of digastric

9) which cement easiest to clean
resin cement---ans
GI
polycarboxylic
zinc phosphate

10) keeping the Kvp and Msa the same and changing from D film to E, to keep the same intensity one should
increase the Kvp and MsA
decrease both
increase kvp and decrease MsA---ans
increase Msa and decrease Kvp

11) which of the following is the endocrine involvement that is related to jaw deformity
acromegaly---ans
paget
cherubism
albrights

12) if someone cant take ibuprofen what can u give them
aspirin
demoral
pentazocaine---ans

13)what is the purpose of oil in the house foundation? (radiology)

14)which of the following not associated with periodontal disease in the primary dentition?
Downs
Steven's johnson---ans
cycloneutropenia

15) small white lesion on the tooth the whole life when did it happen?
hypercalcification during first 6-12 months---ans
hypercalcification during natal

16) which fluoride causes the most staining
APF
NaF
SnF2---ans

17) class V and something about whats best material
low modulus of elasticity
high modulus of elasticity

18) most common complaint of sagittal split? neurovascular nerve damage

19) when do you fill the tooth with CaOH?
1st week into splinting
after 14 days splinting---ans
resorption

20)Patient presents to clinic with a palatal constriction of 3mm, would the crossbit be
shifted to the affected side---ans
shifted to the unaffected side
bilateral

21) which cyst is most likely to become neoplastic
dentigerous---ans
residual
radicular

22)Anterior triangle of the face infection has the most danger of going to
cavarnous sinus---ans
cervical lymph nodes

23) what asthma drug causes oral fungal infection CORTICOSTEROIDS

24) why give hydralazin with chloral hydrate DECREASE CARDIAC ARRYTHMIA, DECREASE CARDIAC AFTERLOAD

25) best characteristic of high noble alloy? soft, ductile and burnishable
26) when given IA injection, which muscle does the needle passes? is it medial Ptyrigoid

27) where would the secondary radiation comes from which affects the operator? COLLIMATION
radiation that bounces off the wall?:confused:

28) Most people affected by perio disease in the US
black male---ans
black female
white male
white female

29) packing cord where is the most recession
buccal interproximal---ans
lingual interproximal
 
1) Most dangerous to breath in

Alginate powder
denture adjustment
metal adjustment

2) Implant placed how far from the nerve?

.5
1
2-4

3) Emergence profile for one tooth in comparison to the DEJ of the next is how far?

4)which drug is given as antifungal troches?

5)The pan looks like a sad face, what is this due to patients:
chin up
chin down
moving

6) which antibiotic decreases its effect with vitamins

7)After radiation therapy, a patient needs to extract teeth, should the patient extract teeth
Immediatly or wait

8) A lack of ventilation in CPR can be caused by
Obstruction
not covering nose
not sealing mouth
not enough pressure

9)bitewings taken on a kid might have overlap because of
cone is in the wrong place
film is too big

10) why is a wrought iron clasp placed as far as possible from the minor connector?
flexibility?

11) what are the signs of acetaminophen OD

12)how do u test a tooth to differentiate between chronic perio and supperative perio
cold test
percussion
EPT

13)A person getting radiation treatment to head and neck will most probably have caries on the
cervical
interproximal
occlusal

14) a pellicle is primarily a
Glycoprotein
Lipoprotein

15) Thin scalloped gingival that receives insult will recess
lingual
facial
interproximal
lingual and interproximal
 
Side effect of diuretic with ACE?

Side effect of diuretic and Ca channel blocker?

Is the tx of severe bilateral tuberosity undercut THE SAME as minimal bilateral tuberosity undercut?

Well for the SEVERE UNDERCUT - TX is to reduce one side of the TUBEROSITY ONLY according to released 1988 PHROSTO PAPER Q 38

:(
GUYS PLEASE HELP!!!!!
 
1) Most dangerous to breath in

Alginate powder
denture adjustment
metal adjustment—ans to avoid shavings of metal in the lungs

2) Implant placed how far from the nerve?

.5
1 --- ans 1-2mm
2-4

3) Emergence profile for one tooth in comparison to the DEJ of the next is how far?:confused:
Trajectory of implant = emergence profile
DEFINELTY 3mm bw the implant head and adj tooth CEJ DID YOU MEAN CEJ???4)which drug is given as antifungal troches? MYCELEX (CLOTRIMAZOLE) it is ant but also used to tx yeast infection
5)The pan looks like a sad face, what is this due to patients:

chin up ---ans reverse occlusal plane , mand teeth is narrow and max teeth is wide
chin down
moving

6) which antibiotic decreases its effect with vitamins? TETRACYCLINE

7)After radiation therapy, a patient needs to extract teeth, should the patient extract teeth
Immediatly or wait --- SURGICAL PROC ARE CONTRAINDICATED IN IRRADIATED BONE B/C OF ORN IF NECESSARY SHOULD BE CONSERVATIVE USING ANTIBIOTIC COVERAGE ;)

BEFORE RADIATION - dental extrac. should be scheduled 14 days before radiation starts
8) A lack of ventilation in CPR can be caused by
Obstruction --- ans airway obstruction
not covering nose
not sealing mouth
not enough pressure

9)bitewings taken on a kid might have overlap because of
cone is in the wrong place
film is too big

Ans---Improper horizontal angulation10) why is a wrought iron clasp placed as far as possible from the minor connector?
flexibility---ans

11) what are the signs of acetaminophen OD --- tinnitus, lethargy, confusion, distress

12)how do u test a tooth to differentiate between chronic perio and supperative perio--- ans I THINK PLEASE CK THIS ONE!
cold test
percussion
EPT

13)A person getting radiation treatment to head and neck will most probably have caries on the
cervical---ans
interproximal
occlusal

14) a pellicle is primarily a

Glycoprotein--ans
Lipoprotein

15) Thin scalloped gingival that receives insult will recess

lingual
facial---ans
interproximal
lingual and interproximal
 
Side effect of diuretic with ACE?

Side effect of diuretic and Ca channel blocker?

Is the tx of severe bilateral tuberosity undercut THE SAME as minimal bilateral tuberosity undercut?

Well for the SEVERE UNDERCUT - TX is to reduce one side of the TUBEROSITY ONLY according to released 1988 PHROSTO PAPER Q 38

:(
GUYS PLEASE HELP!!!!!
 
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