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Please post all questions concerning the NBDE Part 2 here in this thread. The first thread was closed due to it containing over 1000 posts, which slows down page loading on SDN.
NBDE Part 2 Questions version 2.0
- Thread starter Sprgrover
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please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks
1. which of the following is/are true regarding diazepam?
1. its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites
2. it does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration
3. intravenous administration is more reliable than oral
4. its sedative effect can reversed by naloxone
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above
2. an acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the
a. submandibular
b. pterygomandibular
c. buccal vestibule
d. buccal space
3. during extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. the tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. you should
a. remove both and suture
b. leave both and stabilize, if possible
c. remove both, fill the defect with gelfoam and suture
d. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture
4.a 5yr old child presents with yellow pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow flourescence. this is diagnostic of of
a. tetracycline pigmentation
b. pigmentation associated with chromogenic bacteria
c. amelogenesis imperfecta
d, enamel hypoplasia
5. which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors?
1. an 8 yr old with no oral habits
2. a 14 yr old with no abnormal oral habits
3. 3 yr old with a 4mm overjet
4. an 8 yr old with previous thumb habit
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above
6. a disease of childhood characterized by mental ******ation, delayed growth and delayed tooth eruption may be caused by deficient
a. thyroid hormone
b. testicular hormone
c. posterior pituitary hormone
d. anterior pituitary growth hormone
7. bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. WBC
2. hemoglobin count
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. platelet count
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above
8. a characteristic of the periodontium which allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is the
a. nature of acellular cementum
b. elasticity of bone
c. modified continuous eruption
d. passive eruption
thanks
1. which of the following is/are true regarding diazepam?
1. its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites
2. it does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration
3. intravenous administration is more reliable than oral
4. its sedative effect can reversed by naloxone
a. 12&3 b. 1&3
c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above2. an acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the
a. submandibular
b. pterygomandibular
c. buccal vestibule
d. buccal space
3. during extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. the tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. you should
a. remove both and suture
b. leave both and stabilize, if possible
c. remove both, fill the defect with gelfoam and suture
d. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture
4.a 5yr old child presents with yellow pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow flourescence. this is diagnostic of of
a. tetracycline pigmentation
b. pigmentation associated with chromogenic bacteria
c. amelogenesis imperfecta
d, enamel hypoplasia
5. which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors?
1. an 8 yr old with no oral habits
2. a 14 yr old with no abnormal oral habits
3. 3 yr old with a 4mm overjet
4. an 8 yr old with previous thumb habit
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4
d. 4 only e. all of the above6. a disease of childhood characterized by mental ******ation, delayed growth and delayed tooth eruption may be caused by deficient
a. thyroid hormone
b. testicular hormone
c. posterior pituitary hormone
d. anterior pituitary growth hormone
7. bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. WBC
2. hemoglobin count
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. platelet count
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above
8. a characteristic of the periodontium which allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is the
a. nature of acellular cementum
b. elasticity of bone
c. modified continuous eruption
d. passive eruption
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Hi there anybody have confirm answer for this questions
Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.
A 60-year old patient requests the
replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
mandibular first molar should be fabricated
A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
replacing it with a fixed partial
denture.
C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more
normal plane of occlusion.
D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.
A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This
condition does not respond to placing the patient in
a supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. carotid sinus reflex
A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.
The best means of extending the working time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is
to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate
A cast post and core is used to
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength.
A 4-year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta
A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.
Which of the following should be checked first
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot
be seated on its abutment?
A. The occlusal contacts.
B. The taper of the preparation.
C. The proximal contacts.
D. The impression used to pour the cast.
Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed
partial dentures because of
A. high viscosity.
B. low pH.
C. high solubility in saliva.
D. adverse pulp response.
Which of the following conditions would NOT
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.
A 42 year-old lethargic patient complains of
constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical
examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and
diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. Addisons Disease.
A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it
has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The
most acceptable foundation restoration would be
A. a bonded amalgam.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up.
C. a pin retained composite resin core buildup.
D. intentional devitalization followed by a
post and core restoration.
Benzodiazepines have all of the following
actions EXCEPT
A. muscle relaxation.
B. sedation.
C. amnesia.
D. anticonvulsant action.
E. analgesia.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.
Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.
Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
the largest numbers in response to the
accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose
Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched
bridge or Maryland Bridge)?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.
When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.
Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.
A 60-year old patient requests the
replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
mandibular first molar should be fabricated
A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
replacing it with a fixed partial
denture.
C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more
normal plane of occlusion.
D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.
A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This
condition does not respond to placing the patient in
a supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. carotid sinus reflex
A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.
The best means of extending the working time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is
to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate
A cast post and core is used to
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above
The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength.
A 4-year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta
A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.
Which of the following should be checked first
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot
be seated on its abutment?
A. The occlusal contacts.
B. The taper of the preparation.
C. The proximal contacts.
D. The impression used to pour the cast.
Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed
partial dentures because of
A. high viscosity.
B. low pH.
C. high solubility in saliva.
D. adverse pulp response.
Which of the following conditions would NOT
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.
A 42 year-old lethargic patient complains of
constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical
examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and
diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. Addisons Disease.
A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it
has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The
most acceptable foundation restoration would be
A. a bonded amalgam.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up.
C. a pin retained composite resin core buildup.
D. intentional devitalization followed by a
post and core restoration.
Benzodiazepines have all of the following
actions EXCEPT
A. muscle relaxation.
B. sedation.
C. amnesia.
D. anticonvulsant action.
E. analgesia.
After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.
Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.
Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
the largest numbers in response to the
accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose
Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched
bridge or Maryland Bridge)?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.
When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.
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- Sep 11, 2005
- Messages
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SO HERE IS WHAT I CAN FIND, ACCORDING TO MY SEARCH EXCEPT STEROID ALL ARE TRUE
HERE IS THE EXPLANATION
Hairy tongue is an uncommon, benign condition that is also known as black hairy tongue or lingua nigra. It is characterized by abnormal elongation and blackish or dark brownish discoloration or "staining" of the thread-like elevations (filiform papillae) that cover most of the tongue's surface (dorsum linguae). Such changes often begin at the back (posterior) region of the top of the tongue and extend toward the front (anterior) of the tongue's surface but never involve the undersurface.
The specific underlying cause of hairy tongue is unknown. However, possible predisposing factors may include poor oral hygiene and overgrowth of pigment-producing bacteria or fungi in the mouth, treatment with certain antibiotic medications, smoking, chewing tobacco, and/or mouthwash use.
.
HERE IS THE EXPLANATION
Hairy tongue is an uncommon, benign condition that is also known as black hairy tongue or lingua nigra. It is characterized by abnormal elongation and blackish or dark brownish discoloration or "staining" of the thread-like elevations (filiform papillae) that cover most of the tongue's surface (dorsum linguae). Such changes often begin at the back (posterior) region of the top of the tongue and extend toward the front (anterior) of the tongue's surface but never involve the undersurface.
The specific underlying cause of hairy tongue is unknown. However, possible predisposing factors may include poor oral hygiene and overgrowth of pigment-producing bacteria or fungi in the mouth, treatment with certain antibiotic medications, smoking, chewing tobacco, and/or mouthwash use.
.
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64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. (PULP POLYP)
QUESTION NO. 64The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
Pulpal diseases are broadly divided into reversible and irreversible pulpitis and are based on the ability of the inflamed dental pulp to return to a healthy state once the noxious stimulus has been removed. In the case of the pulp polyp, the disease process is irreversible. In contrast to most cases of irreversible pulpitis, the pulp polyp is usually an incidental finding that occasionally mimics reactive and neoplastic diseases of the gingiva and adjacent periodontium.
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. (PULP POLYP)
QUESTION NO. 64The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
Pulpal diseases are broadly divided into reversible and irreversible pulpitis and are based on the ability of the inflamed dental pulp to return to a healthy state once the noxious stimulus has been removed. In the case of the pulp polyp, the disease process is irreversible. In contrast to most cases of irreversible pulpitis, the pulp polyp is usually an incidental finding that occasionally mimics reactive and neoplastic diseases of the gingiva and adjacent periodontium.
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Hi all, I took the exam today. I can not remember the questions exactly but there where A LOT from previous exams (released).
1- Normal amount of fluoride in water (ppm). And more questions about fluoride.
2- Most common caries: interprox, smooth surf., fits & fissures, roots.
3- Amount of epi in one carp with 1:100,000.
4- Sedation used in a pregnant woman who's breastfeeding.
5- Stages of a shock
6- Treatment for chronic periodontitis
7- Lots on behavioral sciences
8- The instrument for carving the beavel on a prox. surf for a gold onlay. The options were something like: 14-90-25-08. I had no idea about that one, and the other options were something similar.
Honestly, with the released exams you will get a lot of questions. Very few I had not heard about before, but everything is in the decks & exams.
Hope this helps
1- Normal amount of fluoride in water (ppm). And more questions about fluoride.
2- Most common caries: interprox, smooth surf., fits & fissures, roots.
3- Amount of epi in one carp with 1:100,000.
4- Sedation used in a pregnant woman who's breastfeeding.
5- Stages of a shock
6- Treatment for chronic periodontitis
7- Lots on behavioral sciences
8- The instrument for carving the beavel on a prox. surf for a gold onlay. The options were something like: 14-90-25-08. I had no idea about that one, and the other options were something similar.
Honestly, with the released exams you will get a lot of questions. Very few I had not heard about before, but everything is in the decks & exams.
Hope this helps
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A: A
It cant be pulp polyp since the cause of the pulp proliferation is the continuous irritation of the young exposed pulp with PERSISTENT VITALITY, constantly stimulated by exposure.
In internal resorption, although it may occur in chronic pulpal inflammation, it also occurs as an idiopathic dystrophic change. Trauma in the form of accidental blow, or traumatic cavity preparation, has often been indicted as a triggering mechanism for internal resorption.
Cant be periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia bec. it is a benign condition of the jaws that may arise from the fibroblasts of the periodontal ligaments.
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The pulp is nonvital in pulp polyp.
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bloody procedure if you're trying to treat pulp polyp. I've extracted quite a few of them.
from google search:
The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
The pulp polyp is the result of both mechanical irritation and bacterial invasion into the pulp of a tooth that exhibits significant crown destruction due to trauma or caries. The mechanical causes that may stimulate this response include a tooth fracture with pulpal exposure or loss of a dental restoration. Usually, the entire dentinal roof is exposed with the crown of a carious tooth. The large exposure of pulpal tissue to the oral environment and bacterial invasion results in a chronic inflammatory response that stimulates an exuberant granulation tissue reaction
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please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks
7. bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. WBC
2. hemoglobin count
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. platelet count
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above
I believe the ans is 1&3
Sed rate is used to measure the extent of tissue inflammation.
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Young pulp does not become necrotic after exposure bec. its natural defenses and rich supply of blood, allow it to resist bacterial infection.
MIcroscopically, pulp polyp is a complex of new capillaries, proliferating fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells. Support for the protruding mass is supplied by collagenous fibers rooted in the deeper pulp tissue of the chamber. All these descriptions prove that pulp polyp is still has been associated with vital tooth.
Just think about it...
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[
these are answers to which batch of questions???
quote=dosanjh;5594681]64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. (PULP POLYP)
QUESTION NO. 64The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
Pulpal diseases are broadly divided into reversible and irreversible pulpitis and are based on the ability of the inflamed dental pulp to return to a healthy state once the noxious stimulus has been removed. In the case of the pulp polyp, the disease process is irreversible. In contrast to most cases of irreversible pulpitis, the pulp polyp is usually an incidental finding that occasionally mimics reactive and neoplastic diseases of the gingiva and adjacent periodontium.[/quote]
these are answers to which batch of questions???
quote=dosanjh;5594681]64. Which of the following is most often associatedwith a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. (PULP POLYP)
QUESTION NO. 64The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
Pulpal diseases are broadly divided into reversible and irreversible pulpitis and are based on the ability of the inflamed dental pulp to return to a healthy state once the noxious stimulus has been removed. In the case of the pulp polyp, the disease process is irreversible. In contrast to most cases of irreversible pulpitis, the pulp polyp is usually an incidental finding that occasionally mimics reactive and neoplastic diseases of the gingiva and adjacent periodontium.[/quote]
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Pulp polyp is Vital... There is no doubt about it.
Presence of blood supply indicate Vitality of teeth and in case of pulp polyp histologically have large number of proliferated capillaries and even in treatment of pulp polyp we can do pulpotomy which itself suggest that tooth is vital....
I think there is more then enough discussion on Pulp polyp had already been done.
Thnks.
Presence of blood supply indicate Vitality of teeth and in case of pulp polyp histologically have large number of proliferated capillaries and even in treatment of pulp polyp we can do pulpotomy which itself suggest that tooth is vital....
I think there is more then enough discussion on Pulp polyp had already been done.
Thnks.
[/QUOTE][
these are answers to which batch of questions???
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. (PULP POLYP)
QUESTION NO. 64The pulp polyp, also known as chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or proliferative pulpitis, is an uncommon and specific type of inflammatory hyperplasia that is associated with a nonvital tooth.
Pulpal diseases are broadly divided into reversible and irreversible pulpitis and are based on the ability of the inflamed dental pulp to return to a healthy state once the noxious stimulus has been removed. In the case of the pulp polyp, the disease process is irreversible. In contrast to most cases of irreversible pulpitis, the pulp polyp is usually an incidental finding that occasionally mimics reactive and neoplastic diseases of the gingiva and adjacent periodontium.
- Joined
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- Messages
- 46
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10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar
122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine
128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction
133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2
136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
149. what does an interrupted suture accomplished
a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap
159. each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate
168. all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia
171. mucous gland are seen every where except
a. palate
b. tongue
c. gingiva
d. buccal mucosa
172. stimulation of beta2 receptor will cause
a. vasodilator
b. sweating
c. broncho constriction
d. broncho dilation
d. decrease salivation
175. if the distance is double, the intensity will be
a. same
b. half
c. quarter
d. double
177. all forms of the hepatitis are transmitted through blood or bodily fluid except
a. non A non B
b. B
c. A
d. C
e. D
188. the most sensitive tissue to radiation
a. thyroid
b. nerve tissue of the pulp
c. salivary tissue
d. prostate gland
189. dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional
190. relationship of sugar and cavity except one, which one
a. type
b. time
c. amount
d. consistency
e. concentration
191. difference between acetaminophen and aspirin
a. asthma patient
203 Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
206. which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum
213. all of the following are affected in removed plaque except one
a. toothpick
b. H2O irrigation
c. toothbrush
d. floss
224. systemic fluoride are least effective on
a. proximal surface
b. smooth surface
c. root surface
d. pits and fissure
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
230 A patient who has Parkinsons disease is being treated with levodopa. Which of the following characterizes this drugs central mechanism of action
a. it replenishes a deficiency of dopamine
b. it increases concentrations of norepinephrine
c. it stimulates specific L-dopa receptors
d. it acts through a direct serotonergic action
232 daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface.
238 a 5 years old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. When should this crossbite be corrected
a. immediately without waiting for the eruption of permanents first molar
b. when all the primary teeth have exfoliated
c. after the permanent first molars have fully erupted
d. when the child is approximately 9 years old
246 Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm
260 each of the following types of viral hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood or bodily fluid EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. non A-non B hepatitis
293 which of the following is used in restored a small portion of a mandible
a. silastic b. tantalum c. homogenous bone d. autogenous bone
301 what is the most common psychiatric problem in elderly
a. dementia b. depression c. mania
310 all f the following cause vasoconstriction except
a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. phenylephrine d. levonor defrin
314 opioid agonists act by
a. stimulating GABAergic neuron b. increase pain threshold c. acting as Mu receptor agonists
321 postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
c. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
d. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
e. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar
122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine
128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction
133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2
136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
149. what does an interrupted suture accomplished
a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap
159. each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate
168. all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia
171. mucous gland are seen every where except
a. palate
b. tongue
c. gingiva
d. buccal mucosa
172. stimulation of beta2 receptor will cause
a. vasodilator
b. sweating
c. broncho constriction
d. broncho dilation
d. decrease salivation
175. if the distance is double, the intensity will be
a. same
b. half
c. quarter
d. double
177. all forms of the hepatitis are transmitted through blood or bodily fluid except
a. non A non B
b. B
c. A
d. C
e. D
188. the most sensitive tissue to radiation
a. thyroid
b. nerve tissue of the pulp
c. salivary tissue
d. prostate gland
189. dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional
190. relationship of sugar and cavity except one, which one
a. type
b. time
c. amount
d. consistency
e. concentration
191. difference between acetaminophen and aspirin
a. asthma patient
203 Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
206. which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum
213. all of the following are affected in removed plaque except one
a. toothpick
b. H2O irrigation
c. toothbrush
d. floss
224. systemic fluoride are least effective on
a. proximal surface
b. smooth surface
c. root surface
d. pits and fissure
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
230 A patient who has Parkinsons disease is being treated with levodopa. Which of the following characterizes this drugs central mechanism of action
a. it replenishes a deficiency of dopamine
b. it increases concentrations of norepinephrine
c. it stimulates specific L-dopa receptors
d. it acts through a direct serotonergic action
232 daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface.
238 a 5 years old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. When should this crossbite be corrected
a. immediately without waiting for the eruption of permanents first molar
b. when all the primary teeth have exfoliated
c. after the permanent first molars have fully erupted
d. when the child is approximately 9 years old
246 Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm
260 each of the following types of viral hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood or bodily fluid EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. non A-non B hepatitis
293 which of the following is used in restored a small portion of a mandible
a. silastic b. tantalum c. homogenous bone d. autogenous bone
301 what is the most common psychiatric problem in elderly
a. dementia b. depression c. mania
310 all f the following cause vasoconstriction except
a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. phenylephrine d. levonor defrin
314 opioid agonists act by
a. stimulating GABAergic neuron b. increase pain threshold c. acting as Mu receptor agonists
321 postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
c. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
d. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
e. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles
- Joined
- Sep 11, 2005
- Messages
- 97
- Reaction score
- 0
Hi ,
I Tried to answers, few i dont know.. please correct me if i am wrong.. thanks
I Tried to answers, few i dont know.. please correct me if i am wrong.. thanks
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing*********************
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue*********************
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face***************
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.
56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion
62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment*************
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment
75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars*********************
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors
87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFm**********************************
d. resin bonded retainer
104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar**************************
122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine
128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets******************************
d. food impaction
133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2
136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia**************
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
149. what does an interrupted suture accomplished
a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap*****************************
159. each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate
168. all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia********************************
d. ectodermal dysplasia
171. mucous gland are seen every where except
a. palate**********************************
b. tongue
c. gingiva
d. buccal mucosa
172. stimulation of beta2 receptor will cause
a. vasodilator
b. sweating
c. broncho constriction
d. broncho dilation**************************************
d. decrease salivation
175. if the distance is double, the intensity will be
a. same
b. half
c. quarter
d. double
177. all forms of the hepatitis are transmitted through blood or bodily fluid except
a. non A non B
b. B
c. A
d. C
e. D
188. the most sensitive tissue to radiation
a. thyroid
b. nerve tissue of the pulp
c. salivary tissue
d. prostate gland
189. dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional
190. relationship of sugar and cavity except one, which one
a. type
b. time
c. amount
d. consistency
e. concentration
191. difference between acetaminophen and aspirin
a. asthma patient
203 Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
206. which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum
213. all of the following are affected in removed plaque except one
a. toothpick
b. H2O irrigation
c. toothbrush
d. floss
224. systemic fluoride are least effective on
a. proximal surface
b. smooth surface
c. root surface
d. pits and fissure
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins
230 A patient who has Parkinsons disease is being treated with levodopa. Which of the following characterizes this drugs central mechanism of action
a. it replenishes a deficiency of dopamine
b. it increases concentrations of norepinephrine
c. it stimulates specific L-dopa receptors
d. it acts through a direct serotonergic action
232 daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface
238 a 5 years old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. When should this crossbite be corrected
a. immediately without waiting for the eruption of permanents first molar
b. when all the primary teeth have exfoliated
c. after the permanent first molars have fully erupted
d. when the child is approximately 9 years old
246 Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm
260 each of the following types of viral hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood or bodily fluid EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. non A-non B hepatitis
293 which of the following is used in restored a small portion of a mandible
a. silastic b. tantalum c. homogenous bone d. autogenous bone
301 what is the most common psychiatric problem in elderly
a. dementia b. depression c. mania
310 all f the following cause vasoconstriction except
a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. phenylephrine d. levonor defrin
314 opioid agonists act by
a. stimulating GABAergic neuron b. increase pain threshold c. acting as Mu receptor agonists
321 postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
c. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
d. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
e. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles
- Joined
- Apr 30, 2007
- Messages
- 10
- Reaction score
- 0
Hi guys:
Could someone explain to me Value, Chroma and Hue much better. if you have a pt with 3 units bridge and when you see them you note that this bridge looks to yellow in references to the other teethnext to it ...What will you say?
It the value or chroma and why? Thanks....
Could someone explain to me Value, Chroma and Hue much better. if you have a pt with 3 units bridge and when you see them you note that this bridge looks to yellow in references to the other teethnext to it ...What will you say?
It the value or chroma and why? Thanks....
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2007
- Messages
- 212
- Reaction score
- 0
HI CAN SOMEONE PLEASE HELP W THE ANSWERS!
A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar
may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of malocclusion is
A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity.
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)
occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the
gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened
renal blood flow.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely
due to a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central
incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.
B
The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous
maxillary incisor is most likely due to
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia.
C. trauma.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact.
Your instructions should be to
A. put the tooth in water and come to your
office at the end of the day.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
office immediately.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
C
The most likely complication associated with the
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
C
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar
may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of malocclusion is
A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity.
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)
occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the
gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened
renal blood flow.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely
due to a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central
incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.
B
The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous
maxillary incisor is most likely due to
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia.
C. trauma.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact.
Your instructions should be to
A. put the tooth in water and come to your
office at the end of the day.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
office immediately.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
C
The most likely complication associated with the
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
C
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
- Joined
- Jul 23, 2007
- Messages
- 26
- Reaction score
- 0
I would have answered as follows.
A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar
may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3) ANS
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of malocclusion is
A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity. ANS
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)
occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the
gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened
renal blood flow.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ANS
A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely
due to a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central
incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.
B
The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous
maxillary incisor is most likely due to
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia.
C. trauma.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact.
Your instructions should be to
A. put the tooth in water and come to your
office at the end of the day.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
office immediately.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
C
The most likely complication associated with the
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
C
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
[/quote]
A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar
may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3) ANS
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of malocclusion is
A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity. ANS
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)
occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the
gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened
renal blood flow.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ANS
A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely
due to a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central
incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.
B
The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous
maxillary incisor is most likely due to
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia.
C. trauma.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact.
Your instructions should be to
A. put the tooth in water and come to your
office at the end of the day.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
office immediately.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
C
The most likely complication associated with the
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
C
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
[/quote]
- Joined
- Aug 2, 2007
- Messages
- 16
- Reaction score
- 1
hi guys, dont buy those "unreleased new 2007 exam file" those are not a new one. i saw it and noticed that its like 2006..and its all here already
i dont think that there are " unreleased remembered exam file" ....
yet, i hoped so......
Purchasing and/or sharing unreleased exam items is illegal and unethical. Doing so will result in your scores being voided and your fee forfeited. You will have to wait at least two years to test again. Additional civil and legal penalties may also be imposed.
- Joined
- Jun 23, 2006
- Messages
- 151
- Reaction score
- 0
1.a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern ofedentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologicloading of the bonea. delayed loadingb. endosteal loadingc. sequential loadingd. progressive loadinge. mucoperiosteal loading.
2.which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patienta. depressionb. psychosisc. sociopathyd. schizotypical behaviore. passive-aggressive behavior
2.which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patienta. depressionb. psychosisc. sociopathyd. schizotypical behaviore. passive-aggressive behavior
took test in last wk.
new deck and released exam is good.
dental secret is good,
oral maxillofacial secret is good
mosby in last min..only reviewed management(very helpful) and pharm(ok)...implant ch was not good.
someone advised me oral med secret is good but i couldnt review bc of lacking time.
sdn questions are not there alot. ... (stop talking about dental polyp tho...it was not on my test at all) but sdn q is pretty good for your practice.
day 1 was easier than my practice exam.
day 2 become more difficult. one pedo case..and lots of geriatrics cases.
new deck and released exam is good.
dental secret is good,
oral maxillofacial secret is good
mosby in last min..only reviewed management(very helpful) and pharm(ok)...implant ch was not good.
someone advised me oral med secret is good but i couldnt review bc of lacking time.
sdn questions are not there alot. ... (stop talking about dental polyp tho...it was not on my test at all) but sdn q is pretty good for your practice.
day 1 was easier than my practice exam.
day 2 become more difficult. one pedo case..and lots of geriatrics cases.
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2007
- Messages
- 212
- Reaction score
- 0
SOMEONE PLEASE EXPLAIN ME OR POST ME A LINK FOR THESE QUESTIONS?HOW LONG DOES IT TAKE FOR PLAQUE TO FORM?
8, 10 12 hours OPTIONS WERE IN HOURS NOT DAYS!!!!!
Enamel Maturation is completed
a- after eruption
b- at the time of eruption
c- before eruption
d- before eruption but after the root starts to form
the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
HOW LONG DOES IT TAKE FOR PLAQUE TO FORM?
8, 10 12 hours OPTIONS WERE IN HOURS NOT DAYS!!!!!
think that within 2 hrs.
Enamel Maturation is completed
a- after eruption
b- at the time of eruption
c- before eruption
d- before eruption but after the root starts to form
A
the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%
C
Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
B
most likely...
hi all.
i have books and materials for sale. i used them for my prep for part 2. and i dont need them any more. i bought books from amazon. so will sell it around at 20-30% reduced price.
those includes:
decks 2007,
test packet L
mosdys (2007) for part2.
dental secret
oral maxilofacial secret
oral medicine secret
contemporary oral pathology
burkets oral med.
kaplan -books, questions and explanations.
and other materials(pharm review:100 poular drugs in dentistry), oral patho/ pedo handouts(was very good for me) and my own summaries for last 2 days's review before the test.
Email me if you r interested!
[email protected]
thanks.
i have books and materials for sale. i used them for my prep for part 2. and i dont need them any more. i bought books from amazon. so will sell it around at 20-30% reduced price.
those includes:
decks 2007,
test packet L
mosdys (2007) for part2.
dental secret
oral maxilofacial secret
oral medicine secret
contemporary oral pathology
burkets oral med.
kaplan -books, questions and explanations.
and other materials(pharm review:100 poular drugs in dentistry), oral patho/ pedo handouts(was very good for me) and my own summaries for last 2 days's review before the test.
Email me if you r interested!
[email protected]
thanks.
1. how do you treat traumatic bone cyst
a. leave it alone
b. excise
c. give meds
5. which of the following represents the basic constituent of the most root canal sealer
a. zinc oxide
b. zinc stearate
c. polyvinyl resin
d. polycarboxylate
e. zinc oxyphosphate
6. aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in
a. vascularly
b. cellular elements
c. fibrous elements
d. pulp stones
7. in the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is least likely to appear
a. cell-free zone of weil
b. palisade odontoblastic layer
c. lymphocytes and plasma cells
d. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8 the most commonly found salivary gland tumor is
a. adenocystic carcinoma
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. muco epidermoid carcinoma
9 the action f the Hawley appliance is mainly
a. intrusion
b. tipping
c. bodily movement
10 a light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continuous
d. indirect
11 the fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5 ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm
12 in a full upper denture the post palatal seal is determined by
a. the technician
b. the depth of the vibration line
c. 2-3mm
13 how is scrap amalgam is stored
a. under water
b. under sulfide
c. glycerin
14 the leas likely situation for a carcinoma to occur in the oral cavity is
a. floor of the mouth
b. alveolar ridge
c. lateral border of the tongue
15 histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of
a. pemphigus
b. lichen planus
c. pemphigoid
d. syphills
16 which of the following represents the predominate type cell type in crevicular epithelium
a. mast cell
b. PMN
c. macrophage
d. lymphocyte
e. plasma cell
17 which of the organisms are involved with periodontal disease
a. P. gingivilits
b. E. species
c. C. rectus
d. Bacteroid
e. all of the above
18 each of the following has been associated with gastric limitation, except
a. acetaminophen
b. alcohol
c. ibuprofen
d. indomethacin
19 the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam in class 2 pedo molar toth
a. insufficient deth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
d. line angle too sharp
20 the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
21 where is the gold directed on an MO onlay spruce
a, faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
22 which injection post the greatest risk for a hematoma
a. PSA
b. MSA
c. mandibular block
23 why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
24 the least likely fracture site in the mandible will be
a. coronoid
b. condyle
c. body of mandible
d. ramus
e. symphysis
25 which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premolar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
26 what is pulpectomy
a. extirpating pulp chamber and canal completely
b. partial instrumentation of the canal
c. complete cleaning and shaping
27 the greatest appositional growth occur
a. posterior border of the ramus
b. anterior part of ramus
c. chin
28 when do you do serial extraction
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficiency in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
b. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region
29 on what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures
30 how will treat patient with type 2 furcation
a. tissue guided regeneration
b. oral hygiene instruction and root planing
c. reposition flap surgery
31 thumb sucking can cause all the following except
a. deep over bite
b. protruded maxillary incisor
c. lingual tipping of the mandibular incisors
d. anterior open bite
how will treat a vital second molar with a 1.5mm exposure on a 12 years old patient
a. apexification
b. endodontic treatment
c. extract
d. apicoectomy
32 bonding on a tooth does all of the following except
a. chemical bonding
b. mechanical bonding
c. increase surface area
33 a patient complaint of recent severe pain with percussion of a tooth. The most likely cause is
a. acute apical periodontitis
b. chronic apical perio
c. reversible pulpitis
d. irreversible pulpitis
34 direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with
a. carious exposure
b. mechanical exposure
c. calcification in the pulp chamber
d. all of the above
35 a calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young permanent tooth is judged to be succeful when
a. the patient is asymptomatic
b. the tooth responds to pulp testing
c. normal tooth development continues
all of the above
36 organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides
37 the periapical lesion that wound most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
a. an abscess
b. a cyst
c. a granuloma
d. condensing osteitis
38 of the following periapical diagnosis, which most likely contain bacteria within the lesion
a. suppurative apical periodontitis
b. apical cyst
c. chronic apical perio
d. acute apical perio
39 a periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
40 you fit a new completed denture and the patient complaint of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. grind buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
41 with juvenile periodontitis which teeth are predominantly involved
a. first permanent molars and anterior teeth
b. all deciduous molars
c. all deciduous teeth
42 the optimal amount of tooth reduction on a molar for a metal ceramic crown preparation
a. 1.5mm
b. 1mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
e. 3mm
43 which drug is LEAST likely to result in an allergy reaction
a. epine
b. procaine
c. bisulfite
d. lidocaine
44 when doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do
a. use a smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge
45 when treating deep packets in a patient with juvenile perio, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic treatment
d. perio surgery
46 the materials that will produce the best osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplastic
d. simigraft
47 what is main reason to splint mobile perio involved tooth
patients comfort
48 dysplasia is related to which of the following conditions. Please check
a. leukemia
b. diabetes
c. pregnancy
d. puberty
49 a patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors place too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
50 what composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it polished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger
51 what would you recommended for an 8 years old patient
a. this is a normal eruption pattern
b. refer for ortho
c. refer to oral surgery
52 between which teeth is the primate space found in the mandible
a. deciduous canine and first molar
53 what would you warm patient about who is taking birth control pills and requires Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectiveness of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of pen
c. they may develop allergy
54 after doing RCT, the success can be determine by all the following except
a. loss of periapical lucency on a radiograph
b. formation of apical scar
c. absence of pain
d. absence of exudate
55 what is the impression materials with the best dimension stability 24 after taking the impression
a. PVS
b. reversible colloid
c. irreversible colloid
56 what radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are contacting each other
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
57 how far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm
58 what does of F are most effective
a. small dose high frequency
b. small doses low frequency
c. high doses high frequency
d. high doses low frequency
59 if a patient has SNA of 82 and a SNB of 87 wht type of malocclusion will be seen
a. mandibular protrusion
b. maxillary protrusion
c. maxillary retrusion
d. mandibular retrusion
60 in what part of the month are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the month
61 the greatest decrease in radiation to the patient/gonads can be achieved by
a. change from D to F speed
b. thyroid collar
c. filtration
d. collimation
62 meperidine overdose is treated with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
63 what is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop
64 what materials will be used for a non vital pulpotomy in a primary tooth? ZOE as root canal filling
can not do pulpotomy on a non vital primary tooth
65 a new patient comes in to see you with deep pockets. What will you initially do
a. scaling and root planing
b. gingivectomy
c. WMF
66 when will the BULL rule be utilized with selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all the above
67 which of the following can be used for topical anesthesia
a. lidocaine
b. benzocaine
68 collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduces the shape of the beam
c. reduces radiation to the patient
d. all the above
69 what can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue
70 multiple periapical lucency are common in patients with which of the following condition
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. taurodontia
c. germination
d. amelogenesis imperfecta
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
71 which of the following is the most common cause of TMJ ankylosis
a. trauma
b. otitis media
c. rheumatic arthritis
72 which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety
73 which of the following is the treatment of choice of a 7 year old child with a non vital permanent first molar
a. apexification
b. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
c. gutta percha root filling
74 which radiographs would be most effective in localizing a supernumary tooth and its relationship to other teeth
a. 2 periapical views at different angles and an occlusal
b. a periapical and an occlusal
c. a periapical using a long cone
d. a pan and a supplemental occlusal
75 the relative position of the maxilla to the cranial base will be determined cephalometrically by the angle
a. SNA
b. SNB
c. Sn-GoGn
d. ANB
76 pan showing lucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was involved in an accident. Identify the lucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph
77 with mandibular bilateral distal extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rests do not fit
c. acrylic resin base support
78 a patient with a new denture has a problem pronouncing the F and V sounds. What is the problem
a. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
b. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
c. mandibular incisors placed too far lingually
79 which of the following is the man side effect of bleaching of an endodontically treated tooth
a. external cervical resorption
b. demineralization of tooth structure
c. gingival inflammation
80 which nerve involved with a Le Forte II fracture
a. infra orbital
b. greater palatine
c. nasopalatine
d. PSA
81 when treating deep vertical pockets in a patient with juvenile periodontitis, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic therapy
d. periodontal flap surgery
82 sedative drug such as hydroxyzine, meperidine and diazepam are carried in the blood in
a. serum
b. white blood cells
c. red blood cells
d. hemoglobin
83 steroid causes
a. adrenal gland suppression
b. thyroid gland suppression
c. parathyroid gland suppression
84 after opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it
a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. mattress
85 the materials that will produce the BEST osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplast
d. simiograft
86 the best combination treating TB
a. rifampin and isoniazid
b. rifampin and penicillin
c. ethambutol and penicillin
d. rifampin and streptomycin
87 the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base by the
a. tuberosity
b. fovea palatine
c. maxillary tori
d. vibrating line
e. posterior palatal seal
88 the strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of
a. silica
b. carbon
c. copper
d. gypsum
89 which med cause mydriasis
atropine
90 what happen to curve of spee in a patient who has lost tooth #19 and #20 have drifted
curve of spee reversed
91 what do you expect to occur in a child with an anterior edge to edge bite
class 3 malocclusion
92 lateral bennet shift is most likely to affected by centric occlusion
mesial distal steep incline, facial lingual steep incline
93 which of the following has the greatest coefficient of thermal expansion
a. gold
b. resin
c. amalgam
94 with insufficient light cure, which area is softer (underpolymerized)?
Core of the composite
95 what is advantage of a bonded bracket over a wire band
no separator need
96 conjunctivitis hemorrhage is the result of which fracture nasal maxillary sinus zygomatic arch
maxillozygomatic temporal
97 fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation
98 in office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization
99 the lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior
100 you fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
d. grinding lingual of upper teetha. leave it alone
b. excise
c. give meds
5. which of the following represents the basic constituent of the most root canal sealer
a. zinc oxide
b. zinc stearate
c. polyvinyl resin
d. polycarboxylate
e. zinc oxyphosphate
6. aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in
a. vascularly
b. cellular elements
c. fibrous elements
d. pulp stones
7. in the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is least likely to appear
a. cell-free zone of weil
b. palisade odontoblastic layer
c. lymphocytes and plasma cells
d. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8 the most commonly found salivary gland tumor is
a. adenocystic carcinoma
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. muco epidermoid carcinoma
9 the action f the Hawley appliance is mainly
a. intrusion
b. tipping
c. bodily movement
10 a light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continuous
d. indirect
11 the fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5 ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm
12 in a full upper denture the post palatal seal is determined by
a. the technician
b. the depth of the vibration line
c. 2-3mm
13 how is scrap amalgam is stored
a. under water
b. under sulfide
c. glycerin
14 the leas likely situation for a carcinoma to occur in the oral cavity is
a. floor of the mouth
b. alveolar ridge
c. lateral border of the tongue
15 histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of
a. pemphigus
b. lichen planus
c. pemphigoid
d. syphills
16 which of the following represents the predominate type cell type in crevicular epithelium
a. mast cell
b. PMN
c. macrophage
d. lymphocyte
e. plasma cell
17 which of the organisms are involved with periodontal disease
a. P. gingivilits
b. E. species
c. C. rectus
d. Bacteroid
e. all of the above
18 each of the following has been associated with gastric limitation, except
a. acetaminophen
b. alcohol
c. ibuprofen
d. indomethacin
19 the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam in class 2 pedo molar toth
a. insufficient deth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
d. line angle too sharp
20 the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
21 where is the gold directed on an MO onlay spruce
a, faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
22 which injection post the greatest risk for a hematoma
a. PSA
b. MSA
c. mandibular block
23 why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
24 the least likely fracture site in the mandible will be
a. coronoid
b. condyle
c. body of mandible
d. ramus
e. symphysis
25 which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premolar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
26 what is pulpectomy
a. extirpating pulp chamber and canal completely
b. partial instrumentation of the canal
c. complete cleaning and shaping
27 the greatest appositional growth occur
a. posterior border of the ramus
b. anterior part of ramus
c. chin
28 when do you do serial extraction
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficiency in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
b. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region
29 on what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures
30 how will treat patient with type 2 furcation
a. tissue guided regeneration
b. oral hygiene instruction and root planing
c. reposition flap surgery
31 thumb sucking can cause all the following except
a. deep over bite
b. protruded maxillary incisor
c. lingual tipping of the mandibular incisors
d. anterior open bite
how will treat a vital second molar with a 1.5mm exposure on a 12 years old patient
a. apexification
b. endodontic treatment
c. extract
d. apicoectomy
32 bonding on a tooth does all of the following except
a. chemical bonding
b. mechanical bonding
c. increase surface area
33 a patient complaint of recent severe pain with percussion of a tooth. The most likely cause is
a. acute apical periodontitis
b. chronic apical perio
c. reversible pulpitis
d. irreversible pulpitis
34 direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with
a. carious exposure
b. mechanical exposure
c. calcification in the pulp chamber
d. all of the above
35 a calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young permanent tooth is judged to be succeful when
a. the patient is asymptomatic
b. the tooth responds to pulp testing
c. normal tooth development continues
all of the above
36 organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides
37 the periapical lesion that wound most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
a. an abscess
b. a cyst
c. a granuloma
d. condensing osteitis
38 of the following periapical diagnosis, which most likely contain bacteria within the lesion
a. suppurative apical periodontitis
b. apical cyst
c. chronic apical perio
d. acute apical perio
39 a periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
40 you fit a new completed denture and the patient complaint of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. grind buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
41 with juvenile periodontitis which teeth are predominantly involved
a. first permanent molars and anterior teeth
b. all deciduous molars
c. all deciduous teeth
42 the optimal amount of tooth reduction on a molar for a metal ceramic crown preparation
a. 1.5mm
b. 1mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
e. 3mm
43 which drug is LEAST likely to result in an allergy reaction
a. epine
b. procaine
c. bisulfite
d. lidocaine
44 when doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do
a. use a smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge
45 when treating deep packets in a patient with juvenile perio, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic treatment
d. perio surgery
46 the materials that will produce the best osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplastic
d. simigraft
47 what is main reason to splint mobile perio involved tooth
patients comfort
48 dysplasia is related to which of the following conditions. Please check
a. leukemia
b. diabetes
c. pregnancy
d. puberty
49 a patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors place too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
50 what composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it polished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger
51 what would you recommended for an 8 years old patient
a. this is a normal eruption pattern
b. refer for ortho
c. refer to oral surgery
52 between which teeth is the primate space found in the mandible
a. deciduous canine and first molar
53 what would you warm patient about who is taking birth control pills and requires Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectiveness of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of pen
c. they may develop allergy
54 after doing RCT, the success can be determine by all the following except
a. loss of periapical lucency on a radiograph
b. formation of apical scar
c. absence of pain
d. absence of exudate
55 what is the impression materials with the best dimension stability 24 after taking the impression
a. PVS
b. reversible colloid
c. irreversible colloid
56 what radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are contacting each other
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
57 how far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm
58 what does of F are most effective
a. small dose high frequency
b. small doses low frequency
c. high doses high frequency
d. high doses low frequency
59 if a patient has SNA of 82 and a SNB of 87 wht type of malocclusion will be seen
a. mandibular protrusion
b. maxillary protrusion
c. maxillary retrusion
d. mandibular retrusion
60 in what part of the month are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the month
61 the greatest decrease in radiation to the patient/gonads can be achieved by
a. change from D to F speed
b. thyroid collar
c. filtration
d. collimation
62 meperidine overdose is treated with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
63 what is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop
64 what materials will be used for a non vital pulpotomy in a primary tooth? ZOE as root canal filling
can not do pulpotomy on a non vital primary tooth
65 a new patient comes in to see you with deep pockets. What will you initially do
a. scaling and root planing
b. gingivectomy
c. WMF
66 when will the BULL rule be utilized with selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all the above
67 which of the following can be used for topical anesthesia
a. lidocaine
b. benzocaine
68 collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduces the shape of the beam
c. reduces radiation to the patient
d. all the above
69 what can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue
70 multiple periapical lucency are common in patients with which of the following condition
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. taurodontia
c. germination
d. amelogenesis imperfecta
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
71 which of the following is the most common cause of TMJ ankylosis
a. trauma
b. otitis media
c. rheumatic arthritis
72 which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety
73 which of the following is the treatment of choice of a 7 year old child with a non vital permanent first molar
a. apexification
b. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
c. gutta percha root filling
74 which radiographs would be most effective in localizing a supernumary tooth and its relationship to other teeth
a. 2 periapical views at different angles and an occlusal
b. a periapical and an occlusal
c. a periapical using a long cone
d. a pan and a supplemental occlusal
75 the relative position of the maxilla to the cranial base will be determined cephalometrically by the angle
a. SNA
b. SNB
c. Sn-GoGn
d. ANB
76 pan showing lucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was involved in an accident. Identify the lucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph
77 with mandibular bilateral distal extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rests do not fit
c. acrylic resin base support
78 a patient with a new denture has a problem pronouncing the F and V sounds. What is the problem
a. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
b. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
c. mandibular incisors placed too far lingually
79 which of the following is the man side effect of bleaching of an endodontically treated tooth
a. external cervical resorption
b. demineralization of tooth structure
c. gingival inflammation
80 which nerve involved with a Le Forte II fracture
a. infra orbital
b. greater palatine
c. nasopalatine
d. PSA
81 when treating deep vertical pockets in a patient with juvenile periodontitis, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic therapy
d. periodontal flap surgery
82 sedative drug such as hydroxyzine, meperidine and diazepam are carried in the blood in
a. serum
b. white blood cells
c. red blood cells
d. hemoglobin
83 steroid causes
a. adrenal gland suppression
b. thyroid gland suppression
c. parathyroid gland suppression
84 after opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it
a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. mattress
85 the materials that will produce the BEST osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplast
d. simiograft
86 the best combination treating TB
a. rifampin and isoniazid
b. rifampin and penicillin
c. ethambutol and penicillin
d. rifampin and streptomycin
87 the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base by the
a. tuberosity
b. fovea palatine
c. maxillary tori
d. vibrating line
e. posterior palatal seal
88 the strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of
a. silica
b. carbon
c. copper
d. gypsum
89 which med cause mydriasis
atropine
90 what happen to curve of spee in a patient who has lost tooth #19 and #20 have drifted
curve of spee reversed
91 what do you expect to occur in a child with an anterior edge to edge bite
class 3 malocclusion
92 lateral bennet shift is most likely to affected by centric occlusion
mesial distal steep incline, facial lingual steep incline
93 which of the following has the greatest coefficient of thermal expansion
a. gold
b. resin
c. amalgam
94 with insufficient light cure, which area is softer (underpolymerized)?
Core of the composite
95 what is advantage of a bonded bracket over a wire band
no separator need
96 conjunctivitis hemorrhage is the result of which fracture nasal maxillary sinus zygomatic arch
maxillozygomatic temporal
97 fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation
98 in office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization
99 the lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior
100 you fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
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PLEASE CAN SOMEONE TELL ME THE DIAZEPAM ANTAGONIST?
WHAT IS PENUMBRA?
WHAT IS DOOSTOSIS?
PLEASE ANSWER!
diazepam antagonist------FLUMAZENIL
PENUMBRA----A SHADED PORTION AROUND A DARKER PORTION.
THE LAST ONE I DONT KNOW.-- MAY B ITS A SPELLING MISTAKE FR DYSOSTOSI--- IF THATS IT THEN ITS DYSPLASIS OR FAILURE OF UNION BETN BONES. HOPE IAM CORRECT..
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Explaination given by Chinnu is a good one, just to add some more regarding Penumbra i would like to add some more.
The finite size of the focal spot of an x-ray tube produces a penumbra in x-ray images. Optical spatial-filtering techniques are being developed to compensate for penumbral effects in medical x-ray photographs and thereby improve the contrast and resolution. The first known successful results on x-ray images are described. ©1970 The American Institute of Physics
The finite size of the focal spot of an x-ray tube produces a penumbra in x-ray images. Optical spatial-filtering techniques are being developed to compensate for penumbral effects in medical x-ray photographs and thereby improve the contrast and resolution. The first known successful results on x-ray images are described. ©1970 The American Institute of Physics
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Explaination given by Chinnu is a good one, just to add some more regarding Penumbra i would like to add some more.
The finite size of the focal spot of an x-ray tube produces a penumbra in x-ray images. Optical spatial-filtering techniques are being developed to compensate for penumbral effects in medical x-ray photographs and thereby improve the contrast and resolution. The first known successful results on x-ray images are described. ©1970 The American Institute of Physics
Which of the following materials is most likely to cause adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a deep cavity preparation?
1 dental amalgam
2 composite resin
3 calcium hydroxide
4 ZnOE
5 Polycarboxylate cement
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According to the American Hear Association the antibiotic to be used prophylactically for a penicillin allergic patient with respect to heart vavle is:
1 vancomycin
2. cephalexin
3.penicillin v
4.tetracycline
5.clindamycin
1 vancomycin
2. cephalexin
3.penicillin v
4.tetracycline
5.clindamycin
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and the Q above has as sure shot answer and i.e amalgam
HI
CAN U EXPLAIN THE ANSWER? Y AMALGAM AND Y NOT COMPOSITE? BECOZ IF WE R TALIKNG ABT COEFF . OF THERMAL EXPANSION THEN, IT IS HIGHER FR COMPOSITE THAN AMALAGM. SO THE ANSWER CAN B COMPOSITE . PL CORRECT ME IFIAM WRONG.
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Ans to question is amalgam should not be placed into deep cavities otherwise it iwll increase the microleakage property that's why the need of cavity varnish and also with amalgam there will be dentin discoloration due to mercury penetration into dentinal tubules.
I HOPE IT ANSWERS THE q's GOOD LUCK IN YOUR EXAM!
I HOPE IT ANSWERS THE q's GOOD LUCK IN YOUR EXAM!
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hi thanks for the answer
but in the answer booklet the answer to the above questions is Composite
and in second question is vincomycin thats y i got confused
even i answered the question same
but in the answer booklet the answer to the above questions is Composite
and in second question is vincomycin thats y i got confused
even i answered the question same
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23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap. right one ????
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva. For sure
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation. For sure
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Not sure about the rest....
Can someone help with the answers?
thanks
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap. right one ????
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva. For sure
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation. For sure
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Not sure about the rest....
Can someone help with the answers?
thanks
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Three carpules (2ml/40mg/ml) of local anesthetic x are required to obtain adequate local anethesia. To obtain the same degree of anesthesia with local anesthetic y, five carpules (2ml carpules, 40mg/ml) are required. If no other information about the two drugs is available, then it is accurate to say that drug x:
a. is more potent than y
b. is less potent than drug y
c. is more efficacious than y
d. is less efficacious than drug y
e. x & y are = in potency/ efficacy
the ans is e, why not a? since is required five carpules, against three to obtain the same level. does anybody have a explanation, pls????????
a. is more potent than y
b. is less potent than drug y
c. is more efficacious than y
d. is less efficacious than drug y
e. x & y are = in potency/ efficacy
the ans is e, why not a? since is required five carpules, against three to obtain the same level. does anybody have a explanation, pls????????
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PLease answer the following ---
Impression material with least tear resistance-
a-Rubber base
b-Irrev hydrocolloid
c-Rever hydrocolloid
WITH INSUFFICIENT LIGHT CURE, WHICH PART OF THE IMPRESSION WILL REMAIN SOFT(UNDER POLYMERIZED)
a-ext surface beneath light
b-core of composite
c-axial wall
Impression material with least tear resistance-
a-Rubber base
b-Irrev hydrocolloid
c-Rever hydrocolloid
WITH INSUFFICIENT LIGHT CURE, WHICH PART OF THE IMPRESSION WILL REMAIN SOFT(UNDER POLYMERIZED)
a-ext surface beneath light
b-core of composite
c-axial wall
I think answer for 24 is E.
Source-http://www.answers.com/topic/gingival-color?cat=health
The colour of the gums is generally described as coral pink. It is produced by the Vascular supply, the thickness and degree of keratinization of the epithelium and the presence of pigment containing cells. The colour of the gums varies among persons and appears to be correlated with the cutaneous pigmentation. It is lighter in blond individuals with a fair complexion than in dark complexioned brunettes. The colour of the gums may also be red, smooth and shiny. The gums are also known as gingiva.
WITH INSUFFICIENT LIGHT CURE, WHICH PART OF THE IMPRESSION WILL REMAIN SOFT(UNDER POLYMERIZED)
a-ext surface beneath light
b-core of composite
c-axial wall[/quote]
Ans C. coz it is far from source compare to rest.
a-ext surface beneath light
b-core of composite
c-axial wall[/quote]
Ans C. coz it is far from source compare to rest.
ans APLEASE SOMEONE HELP!
What cannot be advertised by a general dentist?
a-COST????
b-SPECIALTY???
c-LICENSE AGREEMENT???
Overt advertising, canvassing, sponsoring, discounting or the payment of commission by a dentist for the purpose of obtaining patients is forbidden.
http://www.dentalcouncil.ie/g_dentalethics.php
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