NBDE Part 2 Questions version 2.0

[Sprgrover]

Please post all questions concerning the NBDE Part 2 here in this thread. The first thread was closed due to it containing over 1000 posts, which slows down page loading on SDN.

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[chinabuffet]

An earring on a dpt is located
a) on the opposite side maxilla
b) on the opposite side mandible
c) on the same maxilla
d) on the same mandible
The answer is either A or B. Its a tough one cause it depends on the size of the earring. Which one would you choose?

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
a) divergent roots
b) close roots
c) enamel pearls
d) bifurcation ridge
I have no idea

Maxillary expansion. What is least likely to happen:
a) Overbite
b) Overjet
c) Increase molar length in the upper
d) Increase molar length in the lower
I think its D

Extraction is contraindicated in (pick many)
a) patient had a heart attack 2 weeks ago
b) Factor VIII def.
c) Pregnant for 4 months
d) Hypothyroidism
Tricky

Cause of numb lip (pick many)
a) bells palsy
b) fracture of mandible
c) trigeminal neuralgia
Can only be B. Palsy causes dropping of the face and not a numb lip. Neuralgia is pain and also not a numb lip. Correct me if wrong.

 

[highbrow]

An earring on a dpt is located
a) on the opposite side maxilla
b) on the opposite side mandible
c) on the same maxilla
d) on the same mandible
The answer is either A or B. Its a tough one cause it depends on the size of the earring. Which one would you choose?

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
a) divergent roots
b) close roots
c) enamel pearls
d) bifurcation ridge
I have no idea

Maxillary expansion. What is least likely to happen:
a) Overbite
b) Overjet
c) Increase molar length in the upper
d) Increase molar length in the lower
I think its D

Extraction is contraindicated in (pick many)
a) patient had a heart attack 2 weeks ago
b) Factor VIII def.
c) Pregnant for 4 months
d) Hypothyroidism
Tricky

Cause of numb lip (pick many)
a) bells palsy
b) fracture of mandible
c) trigeminal neuralgia
Can only be B. Palsy causes dropping of the face and not a numb lip. Neuralgia is pain and also not a numb lip. Correct me if wrong.

nerve involvement may l/t numbness...

correct me if im wrong...

 

[liwanag]

An earring on a dpt is located
a) on the opposite side maxilla
b) on the opposite side mandible
c) on the same maxilla
d) on the same mandible
The answer is either A or B. Its a tough one cause it depends on the size of the earring. Which one would you choose?

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
a) divergent roots
b) close roots not sure
c) enamel pearls
d) bifurcation ridge
I have no idea

Maxillary expansion. What is least likely to happen:
a) Overbite
b) Overjet
c) Increase molar length in the upper
d) Increase molar length in the lower
I think its D

Extraction is contraindicated in (pick many)
a) patient had a heart attack 2 weeks ago
b) Factor VIII def.
c) Pregnant for 4 months
d) Hypothyroidism
Tricky

Cause of numb lip (pick many)
a) bells palsy
b) fracture of mandible
c) trigeminal neuralgia
Can only be B. Palsy causes dropping of the face and not a numb lip. Neuralgia is pain and also not a numb lip. Correct me if wrong.

please correct me if i'm wrong

thanks for the questions

 

[pass]

a

 

[pass]

.

 

[chinabuffet]

please correct me if i'm wrong

thanks for the questions

Why would Extractions be contraindicated in Hypothyroidism? I'm 99% sure you are wrong on this one. The main danger with hypothyroidism is with the use of sedatives, opioid analgesics and general anesthetics which could cause a myxoedema coma.

 

[chinabuffet]

nerve involvement may l/t numbness...

correct me if im wrong...

Think long and hard about how Bell's Palsy can cause a numb lip. First thing is you are dealing with cranial nerve VII. Not V. Bell's Palsy affects muscles of facial expression. For you to get a numb lip it must affect cranial nerve V which is sensory. It definitely has nothing to do with a numb lip.

Now the Neuralgia question. This is more likely to be correct than the Palsy because it involves nerve V. However, there is nothing in my textbook that says anything about getting a numb lip from Trigeminal Neuralgia. IF a sensory or motor deficit is present, other investigations must be performed to rule out Neoplastic Lesions. Either way I'm 99% sure it does NOT cause a numb lip in itself.

 

[pass]

please correct me if i'm wrong

thanks for the questions

i remember hearing that ext for hypothy. pt is not good due to shock -from OS rotation. i dont remember why n how.

 

[pass]

i remember hearing that ext for hypothy. pt is not good due to shock -from OS rotation. i dont remember why n how.

----------------------------------

however,

p.117 OS textbook by peterson 4th edition

1. contraind for extraction

1) systemically

- severe uncontrolled metabolic dz: uncontrolled diabetes, end stage renal dz,
- uncontrolled leukemia, lymphoma,
-severe uncontrolled cardiac dz- unstable angina pectoris, recent MI, severe uncontrolled HTN n s/u cardiac dysrythmia,
-severe bleeding diathesis(hemophila) severe platelet disorder,
- caution with pt who are on corticosteroids, immunosuppressive, cancer chemo agents.
-preg: 1st, 3rd trimester. not 2nd.
-

 

[pass]

what is the problem if u want to perform apically repositioned flap surgey in mandibular 2nd and 3rd molar areas
a)external oblique ridge
b)poor blood supply-Ans

which nerve is injured in leforte II fracture
a)infraorbital -Ans
b)PSA

what is the favourable site for implant succes..i mean which qudrant
ant mand most successful

 

[chinabuffet]

Here is another batch of difficult/tricky questions.

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the examiners think that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
I got no idea. I only know that Epstein Barr virus causes it. It can also be caused by irritation and smoking. I suppose I can lean towards "Antibiotics" because all the rest might cause some sort of irritation. However that is a pure guess.

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots than divergent. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges
- the teeth
- on the rests
- on the clasps
Not sure

 

[pass]

Which is most stable after 24hrs?
1)addition silicone
2)condensation silicone
3)polysulfide

Gold Shrinks?
1)2.4%
2)1.5%
3)1%

What is a picket fence? which cusp to which cusp?

Patient is on thiazides, what test should you take
1)electrolytes
2)cbc
3) wbc

With Coumadin, do you check PT or INR? PT
With hemophilia do you check PTT or PT? PTT

With fracture of condyle what makes it go forward and medial?
a)medial pterygoid
b)lat pter
c)mylohyoid
d)digastric

Teeth with most cervical enamel projections (not pearls)
a)md molars
b)mx molars

What flap to use when want to remove mandibular tori? from the ging sulcus.

What is number one reason implant fail?
a)mobility
b)screw loosening
c)cement washout

Heat cured indirect composite (increase strength) vs direct composite. Which is incorrect?
1)heat composite is harder
2)heat comp is more resistant to abreasion
3)heat = less irrit to tooth due to less shrinkage???
4)heat indirect has better bonding to the dentin and enamel???

What do you fill root canal with on primary tooth
1))gutta percha
2)sealer
3)zoe with accelerator
4)zoe without accelerator

why is the gingival 1/3 of crown lighter
1)error in shade selection
2) non-ideal ridge contour
3)improper framework design

Best to use with localized aggressive periodontitis
1)h2o2
2)chlorohexidine
3)systemic antibiotics

 

[turkGuy]

Heat cured indirect composite (increase strength) vs direct composite. Which is incorrect?
1)heat composite is harder
2)heat comp is more resistant to abreasion
3)heat = less irrit to tooth due to less shrinkage???
4)heat indirect has better bonding to the dentin and enamel???

 

[dental doc80]

Which is most stable after 24hrs?
1)addition silicone
2)condensation silicone
3)polysulfide

Gold Shrinks?
1)2.4%
2)1.5
3)1%

What is a picket fence? which cusp to which cusp?

Patient is on thiazides, what test should you take
1)electrolytes
2)cbc
3) wbc

With Coumadin, do you check PT or INR? PT
With hemophilia do you check PTT or PT? PTT

With fracture of condyle what makes it go forward and medial?
a)medial pterygoid
b)lat pter
c)mylohyoid
d)digastric

Teeth with most cervical enamel projections (not pearls)
a)md molars
b)mx molars

What flap to use when want to remove mandibular tori? from the ging sulcus.

What is number one reason implant fail?
a)mobility
b)screw loosening
c)cement washout

Heat cured indirect composite (increase strength) vs direct composite. Which is incorrect?
1)heat composite is harder
2)heat comp is more resistant to abreasion
3)heat = less irrit to tooth due to less shrinkage???
4)heat indirect has better bonding to the dentin and enamel???

What do you fill root canal with on primary tooth
1))gutta percha
2)sealer
3)zoe with accelerator
4)zoe without accelerator

why is the gingival 1/3 of crown lighter
1)error in shade selection
2) non-ideal ridge contour
3)improper framework design

Best to use with localized aggressive periodontitis
1)h2o2
2)chlorohexidine
3)systemic antibiotics

Teeth with most cervical enamel projections (not pearls)
a)md molars
b)mx molars

 

[dental doc80]

Here is another batch of difficult/tricky questions.

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the examiners think that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
Quite Frankly , none of them causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia......unless the question meant Oral Hairy Tongue......

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots than divergent. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges
- the teeth
- on the rests
- on the clasps
Not sure

Jus my opinion...

 

[dental doc80]

what is the problem if u want to perform apically repositioned flap surgey in mandibular 2nd and 3rd molar areas
a)external oblique ridge
b)poor blood supply-Ans

which nerve is injured in leforte II fracture
a)infraorbital -Ans
b)PSA

what is the favourable site for implant succes..i mean which qudrant
ant mand most successful

what is the problem if u want to perform apically repositioned flap surgey in mandibular 2nd and 3rd molar areas
a)external oblique ridge
b)poor blood supply

 

[chinabuffet]

Jus my opinion...

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
Quite Frankly , none of them causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia......unless the question meant Oral Hairy Tongue......

You are right. It doesn't make sense. It has to be hairy tongue. In that case the answer is Steriods (99% sure).

 

[pass]

ekekek.

 

[highbrow]

Think long and hard about how Bell's Palsy can cause a numb lip. First thing is you are dealing with cranial nerve VII. Not V. Bell's Palsy affects muscles of facial expression. For you to get a numb lip it must affect cranial nerve V which is sensory. It definitely has nothing to do with a numb lip.

Now the Neuralgia question. This is more likely to be correct than the Palsy because it involves nerve V. However, there is nothing in my textbook that says anything about getting a numb lip from Trigeminal Neuralgia. IF a sensory or motor deficit is present, other investigations must be performed to rule out Neoplastic Lesions. Either way I'm 99% sure it does NOT cause a numb lip in itself.

picked up bells palsy coz its difficult to pucker lips n thats one of the guidelines for diagnosis...trigeminal neuralgia is associated with parethesia of lips at times.....

 

[liwanag]

picked up bells palsy coz its difficult to pucker lips n thats one of the guidelines for diagnosis...trigeminal neuralgia is associated with parethesia of lips at times.....

trigeminal neuralgia and bell's palsy are not associated with paresthesia of the lower lips.

anybody agree?

thanks

 

[dental doc80]

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
Quite Frankly , none of them causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia......unless the question meant Oral Hairy Tongue......

You are right. It doesn't make sense. It has to be hairy tongue. In that case the answer is Steriods (99% sure).

mouth washes cause hairy tongue as well i think.

 

[liwanag]

the apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may
radiographically show
1. widening of the periodontal space
2. loss of lamina dura
3. a circumscribed radiolucency
4. calcification of the periodontal membrane
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above

thanks

 

[liwanag]

selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density
e. filter thickness

radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may
be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst
2. nasopalatine cyst
3. nasolabial cyst
4. radicular cyst
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival?
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma
d. adenocarcinoma

which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration?
a. history of the lesion
b. cytologic smear
c. systemic evaluation
d. laboratory tests

an examination of a patient who hass fallen on their chin and fractured the right subcondylar region would reveal
1. trismus
2 deflection of the mandible to the left
3. pain and tenderness
4. paresthesia of the rigth lower lip
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

 

[turkGuy]

selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density
e. filter thickness

radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may
be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst
2. nasopalatine cyst
3. nasolabial cyst
4. radicular cyst
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival?
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma
d. adenocarcinoma

which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration?
a. history of the lesion
b. cytologic smear
c. systemic evaluation
d. laboratory tests

an examination of a patient who hass fallen on their chin and fractured the right subcondylar region would reveal
1. trismus
2 deflection of the mandible to the left
3. pain and tenderness
4. paresthesia of the rigth lower lip
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

 

[pass]

Teeth with most cervical enamel projections (not pearls)
a)md molars
b)mx molars

----------
ok, then what is the diff btw enamel projection n enamel pearls? txns

 

[pass]

mouth washes cause hairy tongue as well i think.

its about hairy tongue. and eveything is etiology except candida. yet, it leads to candida.

 

[pass]

the apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may
radiographically show
1. widening of the periodontal space
2. loss of lamina dura
3. a circumscribed radiolucency
4. calcification of the periodontal membrane
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above

 

[highbrow]

if u see dental decks ,oral surgery segment ,there`s a ques about inf. alv. nerve block..n how it can l/t bells palsy n it says u/l lip paralysis as one of the symptoms....

Think long and hard about how Bell's Palsy can cause a numb lip. First thing is you are dealing with cranial nerve VII. Not V. Bell's Palsy affects muscles of facial expression. For you to get a numb lip it must affect cranial nerve V which is sensory. It definitely has nothing to do with a numb lip.

Now the Neuralgia question. This is more likely to be correct than the Palsy because it involves nerve V. However, there is nothing in my textbook that says anything about getting a numb lip from Trigeminal Neuralgia. IF a sensory or motor deficit is present, other investigations must be performed to rule out Neoplastic Lesions. Either way I'm 99% sure it does NOT cause a numb lip in itself.

 

[chinabuffet]

if u see dental decks ,oral surgery segment ,there`s a ques about inf. alv. nerve block..n how it can l/t bells palsy n it says u/l lip paralysis as one of the symptoms....

Right. I think some of you guys are confused on the difference between "paralysis" and "numb".

Paralysis indicates loss of motor control. As in my face has dropped and I am drooling off the side of my mouth.

Numb indicates loss of sensory control. As in I can't feel anything. Sometimes you get a numb toe, but can still move it. Just like with local anesthesia. It only affects sensory fibres. Not motor.

You are right that injection into the parotid can cause facial nerve palsy - I even did that once myself. But Nerve palsy doesn't indicate loss of sensation. And you are wrong to think that Bell's Palsy can cause loss of sensation to the lower lip. The two conditions just aren't linked!

 

[highbrow]

yup sounds right ,so what about trigeminal neuralgia??? does it coz paralysis or paresthesia???

 

[drika11]

SOMEONE PLEASE HELP ME W/ THESE QUESTIONS GOD BLESS FOR ANY HELP!

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

 

[drika11]

Answer Is E (all The Above)

If You Would Like To Discuss The Q's Please Pm Me! I Would Like To Compare My Answers With Yours!

 

[Twinny]

please do you have answers to these questions? thanks
In a Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?

What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?

Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?
what are Schedule II Drugs???

What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?

The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?

During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?

Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration?

What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?

 

[Twinny]

SOMEONE PLEASE HELP ME W/ THESE QUESTIONS GOD BLESS FOR ANY HELP!

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue
regeneration" is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

hi,
i will give all the answers here to most of the questions so we can all discuss them and see if they are wrong correct me please
1c
2c
3d
4c
5c
6a
7c
8c
9c
10b
11c
skip12,13
13d
14a

16 c
17 a
18 a
skip20

20 b
21 a

23 a
skip26-28,29
30 c
31 a
skip32,33,34,35,
36d
37d
skip38
39a or d c
40c
41 b
42 b
43 b
44 b or c
45b
skip46
47 a
48c
49b
50a
51 c
52a,not sure
skip54,55
56b
57b
58a
59c
60b
skip61
61b
62a
63b or c
64a or c, most likely a,
65d
66notsure
67mostlikely d,
skip68
69a or d mostlikely d,
skip 70
notsure of 71 i think d,
skip72,73
74b
skip75
76d
77a
78b
79c
not sure,
81d
skip82
83b
84b
85a
86d or e,
87notsure
88e,
89c
90c
91notsure,
92 i think d or c,
93c
94d
95b
96e
97c notsure
98c or b,
skip100,101,102
103c or d
104d
105a
106notsure
n107otsure
108a
109a
110e or a
skip111,112,113
114i think a not sure though,
115b
116d
117b
skip 118,119,120
121i think a not sure though,
skip 122
123d
124notsure
125B
126b
127c
128a
129d
130a
131b or c
132notsure
133notsure

 

[pass]

correct me pls if you think that im wrong. thanks.

and can you put all questions? i saw its skipping number..thanks.

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp /ans
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment. /ans
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette. /a
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.?
B. edematous. /ans
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to thecementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. /ans
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingivaljunction.
12. In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue regeneration" is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above./ans
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation./ans
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth. /ans
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an (how it is inadequate???)
A. apically repositioned flap/ans?.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vasc ularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above./ ans
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling./ans?
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling/ans.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells./ans
C. multinucleated giant cells
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically./ans
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide./ans
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings/.ans?
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes/ans
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth./ans
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells./ans/ B cell antibody.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition./ans
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws./ans
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption./ans
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
Radiation/ans?
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance)./ans
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion./ans
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing/
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium=cobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm./ans
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)/ans
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)/ans
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces./as
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis./as
3. traumatic injury./as
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above/ans.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.???
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta./ans
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted./ans
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess./ans
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma./ans
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis./ans
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion./.ans
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis./ans
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip..ans
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid./ans
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta./
[/quote]

 

[pass]

pt is 18yo, has tingling sensation in lower lip, painless /hard swelling on lower PM, pt noticed swelling 3 wks ago, in radio, loss of cortex and diffused radiating pattern of trabeculae...dig?

a. leukemia,
b. ossifying fibroma
c. osteosarcoma
d. hyperparathyroidm
e. dentigerous cyst.

ans C. anyone knows why a is not an answer. and C is the best answer?

 

[highbrow]

[
coz paresthesia lip withhard swelling, loss of cortex indicates malignancy....leuk has gingival enlargement ,atrophy,petechiae as the main oral symptoms..


quote=pass;5551732]pt is 18yo, has tingling sensation in lower lip, painless /hard swelling on lower PM, pt noticed swelling 3 wks ago, in radio, loss of cortex and diffused radiating pattern of trabeculae...dig?

a. leukemia,
b. ossifying fibroma
c. osteosarcoma
d. hyperparathyroidm
e. dentigerous cyst.

ans C. anyone knows why a is not an answer. and C is the best answer?[/quote]

 

[turkGuy]

[
coz paresthesia lip withhard swelling, loss of cortex indicates malignancy....leuk has gingival enlargement ,atrophy,petechiae as the main oral symptoms..


quote=pass;5551732]pt is 18yo, has tingling sensation in lower lip, painless /hard swelling on lower PM, pt noticed swelling 3 wks ago, in radio, loss of cortex and diffused radiating pattern of trabeculae...dig?

a. leukemia,
b. ossifying fibroma
c. osteosarcoma
d. hyperparathyroidm
e. dentigerous cyst.

ans C. anyone knows why a is not an answer. and C is the best answer?

[/quote]
why do you think that it should be a instead of c?whats your reason?

 

[highbrow]

its a hard painless swelling ,noted 3 weeks ago n already there is loss of cotex with paresthesia lip....rapid destruction..paresthesia...all these are indicative of malignancy...n osteo sarcoma coz there is bone loss as well...radiating pattern....all this points towards it...

 

[Twinny]

correct me pls if you think that im wrong. thanks.

and can you put all questions? i saw its skipping number..thanks.

thanks
1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp /ans
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment. /ans
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette. /a
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.?
B. edematous. /ans
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to thecementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. /ans
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingivaljunction.
12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above./ans
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiological stimulation./ans
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth. /ans
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an (how it is inadequate???)
A. apically repositioned flap/ans?.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vasc ularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above./ ans
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling./ans?
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling/ans.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells./ans
C. multinucleated giant cells
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically./ans
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide./ans
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings/.ans?
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes/ans
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth./ans
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells./ans/ B cell antibody.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition./ans
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws./ans
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption./ans
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
Radiation/ans?
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance)./ans
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion./ans
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing/
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium=cobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm./ans
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)/ans
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)/ans
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces./as
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis./as
3. traumatic injury./as
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above/ans.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.???
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta./ans
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted./ans
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess./ans
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma./ans
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis./ans
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion./.ans
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis./ans
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip..ans
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid./ans
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta./

[/QUOTE]

thanks

 

[liwanag]

in an edentulous maxilla, the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is
a. upward and palatally
b. upward and facially
c. uniform in all directions
d. upward only

thanks

 

[pass]

in an edentulous maxilla, the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is
a. upward and palatally
b. upward and facially
c. uniform in all directions
d. upward only

thanks

--------

A.

and anyone who know what is "a tongue flap"?
it is used for... insuffient tissue to cover alv. cleft. and i have no idea how it is operated with oral mucosa. thank you...

 

[pass]

why do you think that it should be a instead of c?whats your reason?[/quote]
..o i was confused with ossifying fibroma. cuz its painless diffused pattern of swelling.

 

[pass]

its a hard painless swelling ,noted 3 weeks ago n already there is loss of cotex with paresthesia lip....rapid destruction..paresthesia...all these are indicative of malignancy...n osteo sarcoma coz there is bone loss as well...radiating pattern....all this points towards it...

.....

how do you eliminate ossifying fibroma?

 

[liwanag]

premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

thanks

 

[highbrow]

premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

thanks

correct me if i am wrong...

 

[liwanag]

agree
thanks
Quote:
Originally Posted by liwanag
premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

thanks

correct me if i am wrong...

 

[liwanag]

hi guys,
please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks

1. on bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries?

a. cej*
b. marginal ridge
c. carabelli cusp
d. calculus
e. cemental tears

2. in the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
a. pain
b. type of exudate
c. tenderness to percussion
d. response of pulp to percussion*
e. radiographic examination

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma*
d. adenocarcinoma

4. if an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
a. trismus*
b. facial swelling
c. swelling in the submandibular area
d. rise in the body temperature above 38C (102F)

5. immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to
a. use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling*
b. use hot packs over swelling
c. refer the patient to a hospital
d. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously
e. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (benadryl) 50mg intravenously

6. trismus is frequently caused by
a. tetanus*
b. muscular dystrophy
c. infection
d. mandibular fracture

7. Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats
3. extreme malaise, fever and chills
4. a smooth and red tongue
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above*

8. which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes
a. non-ionized and high lipid solubility*
b. non-ionized and low lipid solubility
c. ionized and low lipid solubility
d. ionized and water solubility

9. which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious patient with peptic ulcer
a. reserpine
b. scopolamine
c. silica gel
d. diazepam*
e. calcium carbonate

10. a patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is
a. a sebaceous cyst
b. a basal cell carcinoma*
c. lupus erythematosus
d. verruca vulgaris
e. an epulis

 

[DrPelus]

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
Quite Frankly , none of them causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia......unless the question meant Oral Hairy Tongue......

You are right. It doesn't make sense. It has to be hairy tongue. In that case the answer is Steriods (99% sure).

Yes antibiotics, candida infection, and oral rinses cause hairy tongue, as well as poor oral hygiene.