I've a pt 27 y/o w/o any significant medical problems(incl gyn-no abortion/prior preg), came to the clinic for anxiety d/o and currently undergoing psychotx. She was also trying to get a baby(in a monogamous rel) for the past 3/4 months, so meds were not an option. Now she has nausea/brest tenderness/ dizziness/browninsh discharges and few clots for 1-2 days instead of regular menses-but they are happening at the due date of the menses(for the past 2 cycles-confirmed by collateral info). However the urine preg was -ve. I would love to start her on some meds, and she understands that-the only thing which is in between is this pregnancy. Her Ob did the lab-work and I am still waiting for the fax for the past 2 wks.
My question is how sensitive is the urine hcg as compared to blood hcg and is there anything else(e.g. US) that can r/o pregnancy? I know of resistance in therapy, but this is rather extreme I hope this is not pseudocyesis-it will make my job much difficult.
Any help would be appreciated.
My question is how sensitive is the urine hcg as compared to blood hcg and is there anything else(e.g. US) that can r/o pregnancy? I know of resistance in therapy, but this is rather extreme I hope this is not pseudocyesis-it will make my job much difficult.
Any help would be appreciated.