Receptor occupancy theory

[a_zed24]

Hello there,
while studying pharmacology and the receptor theories, this sentence popped out and I'm having troubles understanding what it means:
"In receptor occupation theory, the drug may either fully activate the receptor or not."

Why's that? What about partial agonists? Does this theory neglect their existence?

Thanks!

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[NextStepTutor_4]

Hi @a_zed24! The receptor occupation theory is a way to describe the receptor itself and in the presence of a ligand. Drugs may be an agonist, a partial agonist, or antagonist of that specific receptor. For example, the drug buprenorphine is known as a partial agonist. This is because at low doses, buprenorphine can agonize the receptor which helps with pain control but at high doses, it antagonizes the receptor to prevent addiction.

Hope this helps!

 

[a_zed24]

Hi @a_zed24! The receptor occupation theory is a way to describe the receptor itself and in the presence of a ligand. Drugs may be an agonist, a partial agonist, or antagonist of that specific receptor. For example, the drug buprenorphine is known as a partial agonist. This is because at low doses, buprenorphine can agonize the receptor which helps with pain control but at high doses, it antagonizes the receptor to prevent addiction.

Hope this helps!

Alright, thank you!