Hi,I am an undergraduate student doing a project on Herceptin (for breast cancer). I was just wondering why this is given as IV ? I know it seems like a stupid question, but if the drug has the HER2 target, couldn't it essentially be given via any route? Is it just IV because the bioavailability is higher ? I tried looking online but nothing is telling me why it is given as IV or if other routes have been tested.
I am a little unfamiliar with this topic, so another reason could be that the drug contains antibodies...do antibodies require being administered IV? Is this because if they were given via another route, not as much drug would reach the blood stream and therefore it would not work as well...?
Sorry for the questions, I just want to make sure I'm on the right tract. Alot of the stuff I'm reading looks foreign to me.
Basically...do antibodies have to be given directly into the blood?
Thanks in advance
I am a little unfamiliar with this topic, so another reason could be that the drug contains antibodies...do antibodies require being administered IV? Is this because if they were given via another route, not as much drug would reach the blood stream and therefore it would not work as well...?
Sorry for the questions, I just want to make sure I'm on the right tract. Alot of the stuff I'm reading looks foreign to me.
Basically...do antibodies have to be given directly into the blood?
Thanks in advance