This topic has been brought up in a few other threads, but not sure that it has been the focus of any thread.
I have seen some of you use the term "palliative" to describe some non-cancer situations where you may consider low dose opioids <50 MME.
I appreciated Baron Samedi's post which addressed one aspect of this topic:
But I think some of you have used palliative to describe situations where perhaps death is not necessarily expected in the next 1-2 years.
As you may know from my earlier post, I am in the process of stopping chronic opioid prescribing. But I have a few patients where I wonder if they some would consider under a broader definition of palliative, and therefore worth considering continuing their opioids. So I am hoping this discussion might help me better form an opinion on how to handle these situations.
For example, I have an 83 year old with severe glenohumeral arthritis, almost zero ROM with that shoulder, and any movement is extremely painful. A sweet little old lady, tries to put on a happy face, but but daughter says she is tearful at times. Significantly affects sleep. Not a candidate for shoulder replacement due to age and comorbidities. I don't think dementia is a significant factor for her. She is not going to die from her shoulder condition, so I normally would not consider her palliative, but she is not going to get better either, and her expected longevity is probably not that much longer at her current age. But then again, longevity is relative, and maybe she could live to 90's, which is at least 7 more years, and a long time to manage opioids. I am imagine that even some of you who would not call her palliative might still consider her for low dose opioids. Anyway, not expecting any concrete answer here, but just wanting to get a sense of how others here view this general situation, and not limited to my particular patient that I presented as an example.
I have seen some of you use the term "palliative" to describe some non-cancer situations where you may consider low dose opioids <50 MME.
I appreciated Baron Samedi's post which addressed one aspect of this topic:
Dementia is a terminal diagnosis. If she's only 70 and already has moderate dementia as measured by a validated scale, she is palliative.
Characterization of Dementia and Alzheimer’s Disease in an Older Population: Updated Incidence and Life Expectancy With and Without Dementia
Objectives. We estimated dementia incidence rates, life expectancies with and without dementia, and percentage of total life expectancy without dementia.Methods. We studied 3605 members of Group Health (Seattle, WA) aged 65 years or older who did not ...www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
But I think some of you have used palliative to describe situations where perhaps death is not necessarily expected in the next 1-2 years.
As you may know from my earlier post, I am in the process of stopping chronic opioid prescribing. But I have a few patients where I wonder if they some would consider under a broader definition of palliative, and therefore worth considering continuing their opioids. So I am hoping this discussion might help me better form an opinion on how to handle these situations.
For example, I have an 83 year old with severe glenohumeral arthritis, almost zero ROM with that shoulder, and any movement is extremely painful. A sweet little old lady, tries to put on a happy face, but but daughter says she is tearful at times. Significantly affects sleep. Not a candidate for shoulder replacement due to age and comorbidities. I don't think dementia is a significant factor for her. She is not going to die from her shoulder condition, so I normally would not consider her palliative, but she is not going to get better either, and her expected longevity is probably not that much longer at her current age. But then again, longevity is relative, and maybe she could live to 90's, which is at least 7 more years, and a long time to manage opioids. I am imagine that even some of you who would not call her palliative might still consider her for low dose opioids. Anyway, not expecting any concrete answer here, but just wanting to get a sense of how others here view this general situation, and not limited to my particular patient that I presented as an example.