I've had colleagues in their practice do med consent forms where patients sign forms for every medication they start stating that they've understood the risks and benefits and what not. These seems cumbersome. Any benefit to this?
Surgeons will eviscerate part of your body with a 1 liner or dot phrase about consent to surgery if that provides you context on the overkill some psychiatrists go through.
For my scheduled c section there was one mad libs-style sheet with one line for complications and only 3-4 of the most common complications were listed with no additional information or explanation. One sheet per psych med seems like overkillyeah I still do it but I've been more and more lax about it as time goes on. Usually the first med I start them on I'll have them do one of my consent forms for but after that I'm super inconsistent about it, unless it's a controlled med. The vast majority of the time I"ll have them sign a stimulant consent because it includes stuff about not diverting the substance, requirements for f/u frequency, etc.
I guess I figure after the first med I have a decent enough rapport with people that they're still sticking with me for the second, third, forth, etc so probability of any lawsuit even with a bad outcome goes down. Who knows if that's true.
Maybe that's in their clinic note but I've never had a surgery or procedure without having to sign multiple different forms about financial, surgical, anesthesia consent, etc. especially if it's a planned procedure. I agree that plenty of people start all kinds of meds though that are a lot riskier without any kind of special "med consent" forms.
Right, people use far more SE burdensome medications in IM and IM specialties without any of these hoops psychiatrists go through. For any historians, I am curious if this relates to more patient's we treat being presumed to not have capacity and thus us documenting that more of if it was in fact corporate CYA or neurotic psychiatrist CYA.I did this when required in some settings but haven't as soon as I was able. I find it so stupid as the patient's actions clearly indicate their consent, and we can document the discussion just like we document everything else we claim happened in the session. Also, no other field of medicine does this that I'm aware of. Feels discriminatory, as though our meds are somehow thought of as more dangerous than everyone else's.
I mean, I don't document informed consent for floridly psychotic patients who don't have that capacity. It's kinda obvious though, isn't it?Right, people use far more SE burdensome medications in IM and IM specialties without any of these hoops psychiatrists go through. For any historians, I am curious if this relates to more patient's we treat being presumed to not have capacity and thus us documenting that more of if it was in fact corporate CYA or neurotic psychiatrist CYA.
My state had regulation that, for involuntarily admitted patients, you can entirely omit information (e.g. about side effects) if you think that info would lead the patient to refuse medication.I mean, I don't document informed consent for floridly psychotic patients who don't have that capacity. It's kinda obvious though, isn't it?
I suspect this is in part related to VA decisions/values regarding how veteran's rights are respected possibly be more stringent than those states, but also because of legal issues it runs into.Wow, I like those state regs...but it does explain why the VA has required facilities in certain states (and not others) to exceed their state requirements for involuntary medications...
In state hospital populations, for very select individuals, putting clozapine / lithium in their food is the most humane way for them to live, though that is just my opinion.My state had regulation that, for involuntarily admitted patients, you can entirely omit information (e.g. about side effects) if you think that info would lead the patient to refuse medication.
Technically, the regulations would even allow you to sneak up on a patient and inject them with medication (or put it in their food) without their knowledge or consent (even outside of emergencies)...you'd still probably get in legal trouble because that would be substantially below the standard of care, but unlike in most other contexts it probably wouldn't be a felony.
what was the medication? The only psychotropic that comes to mind a rheumatologist might be upset about is Thorazine for drug-induced lupus. Am I way off?I've only once ever had a patient physically sign a consent form and it's because the rheumatologist felt it was legitimately a super high risk decision to restart the specific class of medication but the patient felt his life was dramatically disrupted for the worse without it. (And alternatives were not nearly as effective.)
He's back on it and doing fine and no recurrence of the issue that the medication potentially caused or contributed to, thankfully.
I think the specifics are rare/unusual enough that it might be too identifying. The very short version is severe vasospasm causing necrosis and stimulant medication.what was the medication? The only psychotropic that comes to mind a rheumatologist might be upset about is Thorazine for drug-induced lupus. Am I way off?