Canadian EE Released Test Item Bank

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brain in dds

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Hey Friends,

i'm starting this new thread only limited to Released Qs released by NDEB of Canada. They 660 pages looooooooooooooong!
So, another platform for all EE students to dance on and get each other's help in getting the right answer! :clap:

Good Luck!

Members don't see this ad.
 
Hi

just wanted to cross check regarding APF( apically positioned flap)
can it be done on palatal side or not?

also if do APF: palatal side you would need to trim the margins of flap to proper length during procedure. what does this mean/ relate to?

can anyone explain pl

thanks!
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. true
2. are analeptics. true
3. have no effect on psychomotor activity. :xf: :confused:
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias. wrong
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue.
2. are analeptics.
3. have no effect on psychomotor activity.
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (2) and (4)
C. (4) only
D. All of the above. .

i found this Q at 4 different places (pg # 64, 161, 410, 510) in the item bank with 2 different choices.... what do u think about the answers??
 
The best method to diagnose a cystic tumour is to
A. examine the fluid under a microscope.
B. submit the tissue for histological analysis.
C. perform a cytologic smear.
D. culture the fluid.
E. order blood tests. .

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide
1. adequate length for retention-resistance.
2. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation.
3. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic.
4. a single path of insertion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .


Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
Last edited:
Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
Hi

just wanted to cross check regarding APF( apically positioned flap)
can it be done on palatal side or not?

also if do APF: palatal side you would need to trim the margins of flap to proper length during procedure. what does this mean/ relate to?

can anyone kindly explain

thanks!
 
Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only ....:xf:
E. All of the above.
:rolleyes:
 
which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious


38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. establish the convenience form
b. establish the resistance and retention form
c. prevent over cutting and overextension
d. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.

patient who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force during
a. swallowing
b. mastication
c. centric relation
d. parafunctional movement

3.6 ml of prilocaine has how much anesthetic
a. 72 mg
b. 80mg
c. 144mg
d. 36mg

79. the rate of oral cancer in the US in the past 5 years is
a. increase
b. decrease
c. the same

89. tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification


108. anatomy of which tooth dictates a triangular access opening in to the root canal
a. maxillary premolar
b. maxillary molar
c. maxillary central incisor
d. mandibular lateral incisor

114. pharmacokinetics and biotransformation of drugs is affected in the elderly due to
a. rapid biotransformation
b. increased half life
c. decreased renal excretion

122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine

133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2

134. a 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious lesion and furcation lucency. How will you treat this person
a. pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy
c. extraction
d. nothing


145. scaling is the removal of surface deposits on teeth. Scaling can be done on crown and root surfaces
a. both are false
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are true
d. only the first statement is true

which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion

maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

thanks
 
Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ....ANS

double checked it..here r some pts in regards to glutarldehyde

1. It is initially more active chemically.2. It rapidly forms cross linkages and its penetrationis more limited.3. Glutaraldehyde is not as volatile as formocresol.

4. There is less apical damage and less necrosis inthe glutaraldehyde-treated specimens.5. There is no evidence of ingrowth of granulationtissue into the apex in the glutaraldehyde-treatedspecimens.6. There is less dystrophic calcification in the glutarldehyde specimen.
 
The best method to diagnose a cystic tumour is to
A. examine the fluid under a microscope.
B. submit the tissue for histological analysis. .....:xf:
C. perform a cytologic smear.
D. culture the fluid.
E. order blood tests. .

The preparation of an anterior tooth for a porcelain fused to metal crown should provide
1. adequate length for retention-resistance.
2. space for a thickness of metal that will resist deformation.
3. space for a thickness of porcelain that will be esthetic.
4. a single path of insertion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ....:thumbup:


Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ...:thumbup:




Not sure abt the first one
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. true
2. are analeptics. true
3. have no effect on psychomotor activity. :xf: :confused:
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias. wrong
A. (1) (2) (3) .....for sure
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only ...not sure
E. All of the above.



Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue.
2. are analeptics.
3. have no effect on psychomotor activity.
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (2) and (4)
C. (4) only
D. All of the above. .

i found this Q at 4 different places (pg # 64, 161, 410, 510) in the item bank with 2 different choices.... what do u think about the answers??

Amphitamines cause psychomotor agitation..
 
we use glutaraldehyde in pulpotomy also like formocresol.
it is definitely effective against viruses but not spores so option 4 is not true.
my ans is 1,2 and 3



Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3) -----------ans
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
we use glutaraldehyde in pulpotomy also like formocresol.
it is definitely effective against viruses but not spores so option 4 is not true.
my ans is 1,2 and 3




Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. excellent disinfection against oral bacteria.
4. minimal effectiveness against viruses and spores.
A. (1) (2) (3) -----------ans
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

teethie u r right I checked it..

Thanks for correcting me
 
what is the problem if you want to perform apically repositioned flap surgery in the mandibular second and third molar areas
a. mandibular ramus
b. external oblique ridge
c. mylohyoid ridge
d. poor blood supply to the area

. Each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate

A routine class V composite restoration was placed and patient returned the following day complaining of pain. Which best explains why
a. preparation too deep
b. no liner or base used
c. cervical dentin was exposed during polishing

you are considering the placement of an upper and lower important retained complete denture. How many implants will you place in the anterior region
a. maxillary one and mandibular one
b. maxillary two and mandibular two
c. maxillary four and mandibular two
d. maxillary four and mandibular six

What does an interrupted suture accomplished
a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap

Antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. resection
b. shrinkage
c. reattachment
d. regeneration

In restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true

Which of the following is most radiopaque
a. quartz
b. silica
c. barium

The maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%

which is the most common complaint of lab technicians regarding a PFM prosthesis
a. improper buccal reduction
b. improper occlusal reduction
c. improper shade selection
d. improper margins in the impression

Autism presents as a problem due to
a. metal ******ation of child
b. child playing with hair constantly
c. inability to communication
d. involuntary jerky movements of the child
 
Hi Sarna/ Teethie:

This is the info on the deck on Glutaraldehye: Hope it helps

How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is place in 2% sloution of glutraldehyde?

ans: 10 hours
2% glutraldehyde is an alkalizing agent and highly lethal to essentially all microorganisms, if sufficient contact time( 10 hours ) is provided and there is an abscence of extraneous organic material.

Advantages

Most potent category of chemical germicide
Capable of killing spores ( after 10 hours)
EPA registered as a chemical sterilant
Can be used on heat sensitive instruments

Disadvantages
Long period for sterilization
Allergenic
Not an environmental disinfectant
Extremly toxic to tissues

In hospitals, G are used to sterilize Repiratory therapy equipment
Alcohols, Chlorex and QA compounds are disinfectants.

High level disinfection is a process in which chemical sterilant are used in a manner that kills vegetative bacteria, tubercle bacilli,lipid nonlipd viruses and fungi BUT not all bacterial spores, if they are present in high number.

High level disinfectants: Glutraldehyde/ sodium hypo

thanks!!

Dr. Puris post info :

here r some pts in regards to glutarldehyde

1. It is initially more active chemically.
2. It rapidly forms cross linkages and its penetration more limited.
3. Glutaraldehyde is not as volatile as formocresol.
4. There is less apical damage and less necrosis inthe glutaraldehyde-treated specimens.
5. There is no evidence of ingrowth of granulationtissue into the apex in the glutaraldehyde-treatedspecimens.
6. There is less dystrophic calcification in the glutarldehyde specimen.
 
Last edited:
Hi Sarna/ Teethie:

This is the info on the deck on Glutaraldehye: Hope it helps

How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is place in 2% sloution of glutraldehyde?

ans: 10 hours
2% glutraldehyde is an alkalizing agent and highly lethal to essentially all microorganisms, if sufficient contact time( 10 hours ) is provided and there is an abscence of extraneous organic material.

Advantages

Most potent category of chemical germicide
Capable of killing spores ( after 10 hours)
EPA registered as a chemical sterilant
Can be used on heat sensitive instruments

Disadvantages
Long period for sterilization
Allergenic
Not an environmental disinfectant
Extremly toxic to tissues

In hospitals, G are used to sterilize Repiratory therapy equipment
Alcohols, Chlorex and QA compounds are disinfectants.

High level disinfection is a process in which chemical sterilant are used in a manner that kills vegetative bacteria, tubercle bacilli,lipid nonlipd viruses and fungi BUT not all bacterial spores, if they are present in high number.

High level disinfectants: Glutraldehyde/ sodium hypo

thanks!!
Thanks Jasmine, but according to this, option nr.4- minimal effectiveness against spores is also true... So answer- all of the above? Also how it has minimal effect to pulp if it is highly toxic?
 
lil more frm pg # 230 onwards...

A carious maxillary central incisor with acute suppurative pulpitis requires
A. immediate endodontics and apicectomy.
B. incision and drainage. :xf:
C. opening of the canal and drainage for one week.
D. pulpotomy.

Which of the following is/are true regarding a tooth filled with a formaldehyde-containing paste?
A. Formaldehyde-containing pastes remain non-approved. :xf:
B. The drug manufacturer may be liable, along with the dentist.
C. Formaldehyde-containing pastes have a high antigenic potential.
D. There are cases on record of parasthesia following overextrusion of such a paste in the vicinity of the mandibular nerve.
E. All of the above.

The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates secondary dentin formation in direct pulp cappings is by
A. releasing calcium ions.
B. stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin.
C. stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order.
D. stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts.
textbooks, MacDonalds n Cohen says the mechanism is not understood..:eek:

The initial histological appearance of a successful apicectomy would show on a radiograph as
A. a radiolucent area.
B. woven bone.
C. cortical bone around surgical site.
D. sclerotic dentin.


Apicoectomy is contraindicated when
A. periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support.
B. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth.
C. more than one tooth is involved.
D. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick.
E. the patient is diabetic. :xf:


Proper collimation of the useful beam for the film size and target-film distance will reduce

1. intensity of central beam.
2. secondary radiation.
3. radiographic contrast.
4. image definition.
5. radiation received by patient.

A. (1) (2) (3) (5)
B. (1) (3) (4) (5)
C. (2) (3) (4) (5)
D. (2) and (5) :xf:
E. All of the above.


In root resection (apicoectomy) it is considered good technique to
A. remove as little of the root as possible.
B. curet the soft tissue lesion in its entirety.
C. be certain the apex is sealed.
D. All of the above. :xf:


A retrograde filling is indicated
A. when the apical foramen can't be sealed by conventional endodontics.
B. when a root perforation needs to be sealed.
C. when conventional endodontics is impractical.
D. All of the above. :xf:


Complete calcification of the pulp with obliteration of the pulp chamber may be the result of
A. a deep carious lesion.
B. a deep composite restoration.
C. traumatic injury. :xf:
D. chronic thermal irritation. :confused:
Hey brain,
I believe the correct answer is D, you want debridement. According to my book principles and practice of endo. You also want incision and drainage, but the book says debridement is most critical.

carious maxillary central incisor with acute suppurative pulpitis requires
A. immediate endodontics and apicectomy.
B. incision and drainage.
C. opening of the canal and drainage for one week.
D. pulpotomy.

please correct me....
 
Apicoectomy is contraindicated when
A. periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support.
B. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth.
C. more than one tooth is involved.
D. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick.
E. the patient is diabetic. :xf:

cant it be A
 
Apicoectomy is contraindicated when
A. periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support.
B. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth.
C. more than one tooth is involved.
D. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick.
E. the patient is diabetic. :xf:

cant it be A

It is A
 

some insurance q

1. You do core and crown on patient, insurance says they should be together and only pays for crown, this is called what?

à unbundling, bundling, downcoding, upcoding?

2. you do 2 surface anterior composite, insurance only will call it 1 surface, this is called what?

à upcoding, downcoding, bundling, unbundling

can anyone pl anwer and explain

thanks:luck:
 

some insurance q

1. You do core and crown on patient, insurance says they should be together and only pays for crown, this is called what?

à unbundling, bundling....answer, downcoding, upcoding?

2. you do 2 surface anterior composite, insurance only will call it 1 surface, this is called what?

à upcoding, downcodinganswer, bundling, unbundling

can anyone pl anwer and explain

thanks:luck:

Correct me if I m wrong
 
Question

wanted to check this info:

Facial and lingual walls of the proximal box of a class 2 amalgam cavity prep in a PRIMARY tooth should

1. Parallel each other
2. Diverge toward the oclusal surface
3. Converge toward the occlusal surface
4. Follow the direction the enamel rods
5. Follow the outline of the carious lesion

and Permanent tooth should be how : class 2 box

thanks !
 
Some more q: Please answer & pl explain

There are 2 normal children of the same age and sex , In one all permanent teeth except 3rd molars have erupted. In the other no permanent canines or premolars have erupted.

How old are these children??
7 years/9Yrs/ 11Yrs/ 13Yrs


Parents distressed of a 4 yr old child because of the thumb sucking habit that has resulted in app: 3mm in an anterior open bite, Most authorities agreee that parents should do what?

Stop worrying about habit
Do their best to break the habit of child
Have dentist contruct an appliance to stop habit


Space closure is LEAST likely to occur following early loss of :
primary maxillary 1st molar
primary maxillary 2nd molar
primary maxillary central incisior
primary mandibular 2nd molar
permanent maxillary central incisor


thank you
 
Question

wanted to check this info:

Facial and lingual walls of the proximal box of a class 2 amalgam cavity prep in a PRIMARY tooth should

1. Parallel each other
2. Diverge toward the oclusal surface
3. Converge toward the occlusal surface.....ANS
4. Follow the direction the enamel rods
5. Follow the outline of the carious lesion

and Permanent tooth should be how : class 2 box ....CONVERGING TO OCC SURFACE

thanks !

Let me know if I m wrong
 
Last edited:
Some more q: Please answer & pl explain

There are 2 normal children of the same age and sex , In one all permanent teeth except 3rd molars have erupted. In the other no permanent canines or premolars have erupted.

How old are these children??
7 years/9Yrs/ 11Yrs :rolleyes: / 13Yrs
Q sounds lil confusing....

Parents distressed of a 4 yr old child because of the thumb sucking habit that has resulted in app: 3mm in an anterior open bite, Most authorities agreee that parents should do what?

Stop worrying about habit
Do their best to break the habit of child :thumbup:
Have dentist contruct an appliance to stop habit


Space closure is LEAST likely to occur following early loss of :
primary maxillary 1st molar
primary maxillary 2nd molar
primary maxillary central incisior Acc to MacDonald's page # 742. :thumbup:
primary mandibular 2nd molar
permanent maxillary central incisor


thank you

do correct me, plz!
 
1. Retention of a gold inlay is improved by :
1. addition of an occlusal dovetail
2. increasing the parallelism of walls
3. lengthening the axial walls
4. placing a gingival bevel

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

2. A cavity lining under composite resin restoration is used to:
A. Bind or adhere the composite resin to the cavity wall
B. protect the restorative material from moisture in the dentinal tubules
C. prevent pigments in the composite resin from staining the tooth
D. minimize iritation of pulp tissue


Thanks....:)
 
Which of the following can cause a deficient margin in the
proximal of an amalgam restoration?
a. tight matrix
b. no contouring of the band
c. large increment of amalgam
d. no wedge used

Where is recurrent decay most seen in class II composite?
a. facioproximal
b. linguoproximal
c. gingivoproximal
d. occlusal

Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE
periodontal forces are best along the long axis of teeth.
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong

A patient has a high caries index short crowns and minumum
horizontal overlap. What restoration will you place?
a. ¾ crown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM​
d. resin bonded retainer
 
1. Retention of a gold inlay is improved by :
1. addition of an occlusal dovetail
2. increasing the parallelism of walls
3. lengthening the axial walls
4. placing a gingival bevel

A. (1) (2) (3).....ANSWER
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

2. A cavity lining under composite resin restoration is used to:
A. Bind or adhere the composite resin to the cavity wall
B. protect the restorative material from moisture in the dentinal tubules
C. prevent pigments in the composite resin from staining the tooth
D. minimize iritation of pulp tissue.......ANSWER


Thanks....:)

:)
 
Which of the following can cause a deficient margin in the
proximal of an amalgam restoration?
a. tight matrix...:confused:
b. no contouring of the band
c. large increment of amalgam
d. no wedge used....:xf:leads to overhanging margins not sure if it is deficient margin
not sure between choice a and d
Where is recurrent decay most seen in class II composite?
a. facioproximal
b. linguoproximal
c. gingivoproximal....:xf:because of v shaped gap due to polymerisation shrinkage
d. occlusal

Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE
periodontal forces are best along the long axis of teeth.
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related.....:thumbup:
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong

A patient has a high caries index short crowns and minumum
horizontal overlap. What restoration will you place?
a. ¾ crown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM.....:thumbup:
d. resin bonded retainer


correct me pls
 
questions, Please answer

19 if removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where should the incision be made

a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus​
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth

20 where is the an allograft from
a. freeze dried human bone graft
b. freeze dried bovine bone graft
c. hydroxyappatite​
d. Cancellous bone of the patient himself

21 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone​
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity


22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars ?
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars​
d. incisors ?


23 the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong

24 after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

25tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia ?
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. traumatized mucosa ?​
c. rocking denture stabilization

27 after perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week​
b. to the dentin or cementum

37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
a. leukemia
b. drug abuse
c. mild-moderate asthma​
d. dental anxiety

46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
54 what happens if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine ?
the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
decrease arch length
shift midline to affect side
need space maintainer

55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition ?
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change​

(Not sure about answer)- therefore posting again

71 aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS​
d. stopping local signal production and transduction

86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma​
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication

87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm ??
c. 2.0mm ??​
d. 2.5mm

90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better Fluoride release
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic​
d. easier for manipulation

100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
a. lichen planus
b. erythema multiform
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigoid

Thanks!​

 
can anybody help with those
1-a 7 yr. old pt. has a left unilateral post. crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible most approp. treatment is
a.bilateral expan. of the max. arch
b.unilateral exp. of the max. arch
c.observation till the eruption of the permanent teeth
d.bilateral constriction of the mand. arch

2-symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ r usually associated with which of the following
a-impacted mand. 3rd molar
b-flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c- flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d- excitability of the 2nd division of the 5th nerve
e deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening

thanks
 
does anybody knows the ans. 4 those

tetracycline stain is incorporated during
1.apposition
2.mineralization
3. calcification

which of the following is seen MOST frequently among TMJ dysfunction pt.
1.depression
2.psychosis
3. sociopaths
4.schiztypical behavior

thanks


thanks
 
Last edited:
can anybody help with those
1-a 7 yr. old pt. has a left unilateral post. crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible most approp. treatment is
a.bilateral expan. of the max. arch
b.unilateral exp. of the max. arch......:)
c.observation till the eruption of the permanent teeth
d.bilateral constriction of the mand. arch

2-symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ r usually associated with which of the following
a-impacted mand. 3rd molar
b-flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c- flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d- excitability of the 2nd division of the 5th nerve
e deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening........:)

thanks
:)
 
does anybody knows the ans. 4 those

tetracycline stain is incorporated during
1.apposition
2.mineralization
3. calcification..:thumbup:

which of the following is seen MOST frequently among TMJ dysfunction pt.
1.depression...:)
2.psychosis
3. sociopaths
4.schiztypical behavior

thanks
 
in which stage of tooth development does tetracycline discoloration occur
a. apposition
b. proliferation
c. mineralization
d. histodifferentiation

in this case ans is mineralization..don't know wht is the difference in these two ques with diff ans
 
questions, Please answer

19 if removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where should the incision be made

a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth

20 where is the an allograft from
a. freeze dried human bone graft-- allografts
b. freeze dried bovine bone graft --xenografts
c. hydroxyappatite --alloplasts

d. Cancellous bone of the patient himself --autografts

21 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone

c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity


22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars

d. incisors ?


23 the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong


24 after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

25tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. traumatized mucosa ?
c. rocking denture stabilization

27 after perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week

b. to the dentin or cementum

37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
a. leukemia ???
b. drug abuse ???
c. mild-moderate asthma

d. dental anxiety

46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter


54 what happens if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine ?
the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
decrease arch length :xf:
shift midline to affect side
need space maintainer


55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition ?
a. increased ???
b. decreased
c. stable, no change

(Not sure about answer)- therefore posting again

71 aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS

d. stopping local signal production and transduction :xf:

86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma

d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication :xf:

87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm --for PJC
c. 2.0mm

d. 2.5mm

90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better Fluoride release
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic

d. easier for manipulation

100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
a. lichen planus
b. erythema multiform
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigoid


Thanks!


do correct n help with the right answer,plz!
 
19 if removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where should the incision be made

a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus ANS
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth

20 where is the an allograft from
a. freeze dried human bone graft ANS
b. freeze dried bovine bone graft
c. hydroxyappatite​
d. Cancellous bone of the patient himself

21 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone​
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity ANS


22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars ANS
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars​
d. incisors ?


23 the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong ans

24 after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants ANS
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

25tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia ? ANS
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. traumatized mucosa ?
c. rocking denture stabilization

27 after perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week​
b. to the dentin or cementum

37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
a. leukemia
b. drug abuse ANS
c. mild-moderate asthma​
d. dental anxiety

46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite ANS
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
54 what happens if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine ?
the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually ANS
decrease arch length
shift midline to affect side
need space maintainer

55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition ?
a. increased ANS
b. decreased
c. stable, no change​

(Not sure about answer)- therefore posting again

71 aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS​
d. stopping local signal production and transduction

86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma​
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication ANS

87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm ??
c. 2.0mm ?? ANS
d. 2.5mm

90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better Fluoride release
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic​
d. easier for manipulation ANS

100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
a. lichen planus
b. erythema multiform ANS
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigoid​
 
19 if removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where should the incision be made

a. right on the top of the torus
b. at the base of the torus
c. midline of the torus ANS...in case it is maxillary torus
d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth ..if it is mandibular

not sure abt this as torus in upper or lower not mentioned

20 where is the an allograft from
a. freeze dried human bone graft ANS
b. freeze dried bovine bone graft
c. hydroxyappatite​
....wht abt hydroxyapatite
d. Cancellous bone of the patient himself

21 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
a. from the autogenous bone cells
b. from the peripheral cancellous bone​
c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity ANS


22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
a. maxillary molars ANS
b. mandibular molars
c. primary molars​
d. incisors ?


23 the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong ans

24 after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants ANS
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

25tissue conditioner is used for treating
a. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia ? ANS
b. Epulis fissuratum
c. traumatized mucosa ? ...why not this?
c. rocking denture stabilization

27 after perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week​
b. to the dentin or cementum

37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
a. leukemia
b. drug abuse ANS
c. mild-moderate asthma​
d. dental anxiety

46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite ANS
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
54 what happens if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine ?
the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually ANS
decrease arch length
shift midline to affect side answer
need space maintainer

55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition ?
a. increased ANS
b. decreased
c. stable, no change​

(Not sure about answer)- therefore posting again

71 aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS​
d. stopping local signal production and transduction

86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma​
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication ANS

87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm ??
c. 2.0mm ?? ANS
d. 2.5mm

90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better Fluoride release
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic​
d. easier for manipulation ANS

100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
a. lichen planus
b. erythema multiform ANS
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigoid​

thanks
 
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