Work done on an inclune: frictional vs gravitational.

[pfaction]

Let's say you have an incline, angle 30, height 1, hypotenuse 2. I'm almost 99% sure in this, but the work done to bring a 1kg from the base to the top is more when there's frictional force involved than if there was not, because if there was not, the work done would just be equivalent to mgh. Is this right?

Work = (mu)(mgcosO)(D) + (mgsinO <- I think this is mgh)(D) > (mgh)

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[chiddler]

Let's say you have an incline, angle 30, height 1, hypotenuse 2. I'm almost 99% sure in this, but the work done to bring a 1kg from the base to the top is more when there's frictional force involved than if there was not, because if there was not, the work done would just be equivalent to mgh. Is this right?

Work = (mu)(mgcosO)(D) + (mgsinO <- I think this is mgh)(D) > (mgh)

yeah you're right

kind of confusing to read your equation, so i'll write:

W = mgh + mgud

where u = coefficient of friction, d is distance

As opposed to frictionless

W = mgh

Or, you can look at the W=Fd where force will be higher as you're pushing it up the ramp when you add in friction. This is because force down is gravity + friction. If it were frictionless, then it's just gravity by itself.