Subq heparin or lovenox before induction of GA

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coffeebythelake

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Often times subcutaneous injections are performed by the preop RN before the patient goes to the OR. That seems to make more sense to me, thry can time it to sign out before we roll back.

In some cases, in the OR we do the preinduction checklist and sign in and are asked by surgeon to give subcutaneous injection. We typically give it preinduction as the thought it VTE is most likely to happen with induction of GA (edit: not the most likely to cause VTE, but may create conditions that allow VTE to occur later). But is there much evidence for this practice? Is giving a shot of 5000 U subcutaneous heparin 1 minute before induction going to do anything? Seems to me it is more checkbox medicine..

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Is this true?

Thats what we were taught but I can't seem to find a reference for it. The thought is that flow changes with induction of GA (vasodilation, slower velocity of flow) causes valve cusp hypoxia and thrombotic nidus formation which can develop into larger VTE. Same reason SCDs should be initiated before induction of GA.
 
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Thats what we were taught but I can't seem to find a reference for it. The thought is that flow changes with induction of GA (vasodilation, slower velocity of flow) causes valve cusp hypoxia and thrombotic nidus formation which can develop into larger VTE. Same reason SCDs should be initiated before induction of GA.

I sincerely doubt that is how it works. Propofol doesn't make blood clot. And you usually see an increase in cardiac output during induction attempting to compensate for the vasodilation so it isn't like the blood is magically moving slower around the body.

People put on SCDs before induction so that you aren't screwing around wasting time after the patient is asleep and can get on with the surgery. Surgery itself makes people hypercoagulable. Tissue damage releases tissue factor and initiates coagulation cascade, etc. It's not like we are putting SCDs and giving heparin before people get sedated for endoscopies with the same drugs and seeing a bunch of DVTs.
 
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I sincerely doubt that is how it works. Propofol doesn't make blood clot. And you usually see an increase in cardiac output during induction attempting to compensate for the vasodilation so it isn't like the blood is magically moving slower around the body.

I never said propofol make blood clot. You were the one who said that.

You can read up on valve cusp hypoxia as a theoretical mechanism for clot nidus. It might be an outdated idea, I dunno, but that was what I learned. Abrupt changes in blood flow rates causing tiny nidus which can potentially develop into VTE. Cardiac output may increase (or it might decrease?) and usually in the setting of airway manupulation/laryngoacopy. Thr whole point of your induction drug is to match the vasodepressant negative inotropic effect of drug to the vasopressor positive jnotropic effect of airway manipulation. And we've all seen time and time again that they don't always match that well.

In any case i hope you appreciate the practice relevant implication of my line of questioning. If you are correct it doesn't matter then you could give that subcutaneous heparin any time really. 30 min before induction, 15 seconds before induction, 10 minutes after induction... it shouldn't affect VTE outcomes??

People put on SCDs before induction so that you aren't screwing around wasting time after the patient is asleep and can get on with the surgery.

Doesnt matter huh?? Sure about that? If it doesn't matter why does the APSF and IARS specifically recommend SCDs on before induction of GA?

Surgery itself makes people hypercoagulable. Tissue damage releases tissue factor and initiates coagulation cascade, etc. It's not like we are putting SCDs and giving heparin before people get sedated for endoscopies with the same drugs and seeing a bunch of DVTs.

Of course surgery itself causes hypercoagulability. Virchows triad. Sure. Patients propensity for actually forming clot is based on many factors and their RR increases if they have a procoagulant condition, taking OCP, have cancer, etc. Its all a matter of risk. Just as not every patient with cancer gets VTE..

Perhaps my initial wording needs change. Induction of GA is not the most likely time for VTE to occur, but it js a particular time where nidus may form which can increase the risk for VTE.
 
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Often times subcutaneous injections are performed by the preop RN before the patient goes to the OR. That seems to make more sense to me, thry can time it to sign out before we roll back.

In some cases, in the OR we do the preinduction checklist and sign in and are asked by surgeon to give subcutaneous injection. We typically give it preinduction as the thought it VTE is most likely to happen with induction of GA (edit: not the most likely to cause VTE, but may create conditions that allow VTE to occur later). But is there much evidence for this practice? Is giving a shot of 5000 U subcutaneous heparin 1 minute before induction going to do anything? Seems to me it is more checkbox medicine..
I have never heard of this being done, do you really anticoagulate people before surgery?
 
I never said propofol make blood clot. You were the one who said that.

You can read up on valve cusp hypoxia as a theoretical mechanism for clot nidus. It might be an outdated idea, I dunno, but that was what I learned. Abrupt changes in blood flow rates causing tiny nidus which can potentially develop into VTE. Cardiac output may increase (or it might decrease?) and usually in the setting of airway manupulation/laryngoacopy. Thr whole point of your induction drug is to match the vasodepressant negative inotropic effect of drug to the vasopressor positive jnotropic effect of airway manipulation. And we've all seen time and time again that they don't always match that well.

In any case i hope you appreciate the practice relevant implication of my line of questioning. If you are correct it doesn't matter then you could give that subcutaneous heparin any time really. 30 min before induction, 15 seconds before induction, 10 minutes after induction... it shouldn't affect VTE outcomes??



Doesnt matter huh?? Sure about that? If it doesn't matter why does the APSF and IARS specifically recommend SCDs on before induction of GA?



Of course surgery itself causes hypercoagulability. Virchows triad. Sure. Patients propensity for actually forming clot is based on many factors and their RR increases if they have a procoagulant condition, taking OCP, have cancer, etc. Its all a matter of risk. Just as not every patient with cancer gets VTE..

Perhaps my initial wording needs change. Induction of GA is not the most likely time for VTE to occur, but it js a particular time where nidus may form which can increase the risk for VTE.
I think the sq heparin and SCDs on prior to GA is a checklist item probably based off consensus and recommendation by experts. I haven’t looked it up, but sq heparin takes time to be absorbed, doesn’t make any sense to me. I think the risk of VTE comes mostly from inflammation from surgery.

I have been in the OR when the preop nurse has forgotten to give sq heparin, I give it after induction, and the surgery team tells me “it’s useless unless given before induction”, which seems like a ridiculous statement.
 
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Doesnt matter huh?? Sure about that? If it doesn't matter why does the APSF and IARS specifically recommend SCDs on before induction of GA?

Please do not confuse recommendations with evidence. Induction of anesthesia does not cause DVTs, even theoretically. Risk of DVT is based on the procedure, not the anesthetic choice.

We give sub Q heparin or lovenox in preop holding for certain cases that are high risk for postop DVT, but it's a true minority of surgeries overall. The ones we don't give it to are not all of a sudden getting DVTs during the case. Similar with SCDs. Not every case gets SCDs, depends on the surgery. What heparin or SCDs or whatever don't depend on is the anesthetic drugs given.

Also, how in the heck would something like "valve cusp hypoxia" even be related to induction of anesthesia? We generally preoxygenate patients adequately and their PO2 is going to be way above normal which combined with a usual increase in cardiac output means tissue oxygen delivery is generally slightly higher immediately after induction than it was at baseline.
 
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Please do not confuse recommendations with evidence. Induction of anesthesia does not cause DVTs, even theoretically. Risk of DVT is based on the procedure, not the anesthetic choice.

Okay so your recommendation is that there is no need for subq heparin or SCD before induction GA even in very high risk patients. (As long as they get it at some point?)

Also your words are technically incorrect as studies have show neuraxial anesthesia for ortho surgery has lower VTE rates than GA.

We give sub Q heparin or lovenox in preop holding for certain cases that are high risk for postop DVT, but it's a true minority of surgeries overall. The ones we don't give it to are not all of a sudden getting DVTs during the case. Similar with SCDs. Not every case gets SCDs, depends on the surgery. What heparin or SCDs or whatever don't depend on is the anesthetic drugs given.

Again you need to try to stop warping my words. I didn't say the anesthetic drugs cause clotting (second time I have to say this to you). I said it might cause hemodynamic changes which lead to nidus formation, and the nidus in certain high risk patient populations may grow and develop into VTE.

So now you do want to give subq heparin jn preop? I thought timing didn't matter? By your previous line of reasoning you don't need to do it jn preop specifically. You could just do it any time.

I talked about propensity for clot and risk. So while a tiny nidus may develop it may never actually form a VTE in a healthy patient going for lap appendectomy, but it might ultimately form a VTE later on in a frail, old, smoker who has GI cancer going for colorectal surgery.

Also, how in the heck would something like "valve cusp hypoxia" even be related to induction of anesthesia? We generally preoxygenate patients adequately and their PO2 is going to be way above normal which combined with a usual increase in cardiac output means tissue oxygen delivery is generally slightly higher immediately after induction than it was at baseline.

First of all, cardiac output doesn't always increase. The heart rate might increase. The blood pressure might increase or decrease. The blood flow and distribution of flow changes sometimes quite abruptly. Venous pooling can and does occur. (I think an interesting retrospective would be to examine the degree of hemodynamic swing with induction of GA and VTE outcomes in matched cohorts, although this would probably be very difficult to do)

Second of all, it is possible to have local hypoxia despite whole body hyperoxia.

I didn't make up the term valve cusp hypoxia. This has been around and was believed to be a mechanism for how some VTE might develop. Its probably the basis for our practice to give subq heparin PRIOR to induction of GA. The point of my thread is to question the actual evidence for this (decidedly not much, is it checkbox medicine?) but you haven't given much contrarian evidence either.
 
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I think the sq heparin and SCDs on prior to GA is a checklist item probably based off consensus and recommendation by experts. I haven’t looked it up, but sq heparin takes time to be absorbed, doesn’t make any sense to me. I think the risk of VTE comes mostly from inflammation from surgery.

I have been in the OR when the preop nurse has forgotten to give sq heparin, I give it after induction, and the surgery team tells me “it’s useless unless given before induction”, which seems like a ridiculous statement.

And this is the practice relevant question. Does it matter? Is it BS? Maybe? Maybe not? Anyone with actual evidence (not opinion) that timing relative to induction of GA matters?
 
I am simply saying anesthetic induction does not cause DVTs to form, neither as a direct medication effect or as a hemodynamic consequence. End of story. Of course our patients get SCDs put on in preop holding and receive heparin in preop because those things are ordered and it is the easiest time to give them. Screwing around after induction to do things is a total waste of time. Academic mental masturbation to pretend otherwise.

I bet if you reviewed 100,000 charts on patients that got heparin in preop holding vs 5 minutes after intubation in the OR there would be absolutely no difference in DVT rates.
 
And this is the practice relevant question. Does it matter? Is it BS? Maybe? Maybe not? Anyone with actual evidence (not opinion) that timing relative to induction of GA matters?

Nobody has ever done a quality study of it so there is no evidence.

Please feel free to do your own and get published.
 
I am simply saying anesthetic induction does not cause DVTs to form, neither as a direct medication effect or as a hemodynamic consequence. End of story. Of course our patients get SCDs put on in preop holding and receive heparin in preop because those things are ordered and it is the easiest time to give them. Screwing around after induction to do things is a total waste of time. Academic mental masturbation to pretend otherwise.

I bet if you reviewed 100,000 charts on patients that got heparin in preop holding vs 5 minutes after intubation in the OR there would be absolutely no difference in DVT rates.
I think coffeebythelake is correct about this.
 
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