PA's and DO's ??

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bluegold

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I was wondering why there is a difference in practice rights as a PA working under a DO verses MD? In Pennsylvania PAs working under DOs are not permitted to prescribe medications (according to the aapa website) why is that - I thought DO=MD?

Is this something the DOs wanted so their territory isnt taken away? or some DO bias?

Any thoughts?

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http://www.pacode.com/secure/data/049/chapter18/subchapDtoc.html

"? 18.122. Definitions.

The following words and terms, when used in this subchapter, have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

Physician?A medical doctor or doctor of osteopathic medicine. "

That's the only time you see osteopathic mentioned.

Could you supply the specific link to what you read? The AAPA site is large.

- Tae
 
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There is so much political crap with DO's in some states (Must do the DO internship to get a license, ect.) I'm sure this was a territory issue and more grandstanding politics.
 
This is because DO's in Pa have their own licensing authority, meaning they choose not to allow PA's to write scripts. MD's have chosen an alternate plan. Some states license all physicians under one board (as in Texas) and some have 2 separate boards. Its not about taking anything away from DO credibility but more about DO's being a bit more conservative of their view of PA's.
 
Exactly. This is a restriction set forth by the Osteopathic community, not the state of PA. Also, the extra 1 year rotating internship that must be done in PA is also set forth by the Osteopathic licensing board. It is not the state of PA, or MD's creating that rule. The DO's there are.
 
Interestingly, in New Mexico, the requirements for a PA working under a DO are less. Working under an MD, a PA needs to have a Bachelor's degree or at least two years of experience working as a PA. Working under a DO, those restrictions don't apply.

http://www.aapa.org/gandp/statelaw.html
 
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