This concept still confuses me. With an oral contraceptive pill pack, the pills at the end are blank. Effectively, the woman is skipping her hormone pills for 4 days or so depending on the pack. How is this different from her missing one pill in terms of ovulation/pregnancy risk? I was taught that missing 1-2 pills creates a decent chance for ovulation, so obviously she should be advised to use backup methods. How are those 1-2 days different from first 1-2 days of her blank pills?
And a followup- if the patient chooses to do prolonged cycles, in theory would it matter the timing during her 90 day cycle when she chooses to have her period/take the blanks?
I hope I've made my question clear. I'm sure this must be explained somewhere and obgyn is not my specialty, so thanks for your help explaining it.
And a followup- if the patient chooses to do prolonged cycles, in theory would it matter the timing during her 90 day cycle when she chooses to have her period/take the blanks?
I hope I've made my question clear. I'm sure this must be explained somewhere and obgyn is not my specialty, so thanks for your help explaining it.