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I was just going over destroyer 2011 bio 165 and 169 and some of the wording was a little tricky and I'd hate too miss a question the real dat because of it...so it got me thinking...
165 B says:
According to Mendel's Law of Segregation, the two genes segregate from each other at meiosis, thus each gamete produced after meiosis has an equal chance of receiving one or the other gene, but not both
?? Shouldn't it state: two alleles segregate....each gamete has an equal chance of receiving one or the other allele
165 C says:
Each pair of alleles segregates into gametes independently according to Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment
--this is correct...
--in this one they say pair alleles instead of gene
---but that's fine because 1 allele pair = 1 gene, right?
169 A says:
Each gene pair tends to assort into gametes independently of other gene pairs that are located on nonhomologous chromosomes
--supposively this is a correct statement....
--each gene pair?
My understanding of Mendel's laws are: (please correct me or if I left anything out)
law of segregation:
--1 allele (out of 2) for a particular trait is passed to the gametes
---And either gamete has equal probability of receiving 1 or the other allele
*now for this statement, is it also correct to state 1 chromatid out of the sister chromatids?
law of independent assortment
-Separate genes for separate traits (therefore nonhomologous chromosomes) assort independently of each other during metaphase I of meiosis I
---Meaning that in the formation of gametes for an AaBb individual, gametes could either receive AB, Ab, aB or ab
Random question...
So we know its stated that independent assortment occurs during metaphase I of meiosis I, but
Ive never seen it stated when the law of segregation occurs...
would the law of segregation occur during meiosis II? (anaphase II?)
*please, any insight would be appreciated. thanks!
165 B says:
According to Mendel's Law of Segregation, the two genes segregate from each other at meiosis, thus each gamete produced after meiosis has an equal chance of receiving one or the other gene, but not both
?? Shouldn't it state: two alleles segregate....each gamete has an equal chance of receiving one or the other allele
165 C says:
Each pair of alleles segregates into gametes independently according to Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment
--this is correct...
--in this one they say pair alleles instead of gene
---but that's fine because 1 allele pair = 1 gene, right?
169 A says:
Each gene pair tends to assort into gametes independently of other gene pairs that are located on nonhomologous chromosomes
--supposively this is a correct statement....
--each gene pair?
My understanding of Mendel's laws are: (please correct me or if I left anything out)
law of segregation:
--1 allele (out of 2) for a particular trait is passed to the gametes
---And either gamete has equal probability of receiving 1 or the other allele
*now for this statement, is it also correct to state 1 chromatid out of the sister chromatids?
law of independent assortment
-Separate genes for separate traits (therefore nonhomologous chromosomes) assort independently of each other during metaphase I of meiosis I
---Meaning that in the formation of gametes for an AaBb individual, gametes could either receive AB, Ab, aB or ab
Random question...
So we know its stated that independent assortment occurs during metaphase I of meiosis I, but
Ive never seen it stated when the law of segregation occurs...
would the law of segregation occur during meiosis II? (anaphase II?)
*please, any insight would be appreciated. thanks!
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