thefootfixer
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- Oct 3, 2022
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Hi all
I’m in the process of renegotiating some terms and I’m trying to understand…as an associate, how do you know when you’re being taken advantage of?
What I’m told is, whatever salary you want, should be justified be having a production value of 3x that number (eg. 100k salary should be justified by 300k collections , 200k by 600k etc)..is this true? Some of it doesn’t make sense because my understanding is that overhead for associates is 40%…maybe 50% at the most. So if you’re truly collecting 300k, 50% overhead leaves you with a $150k salary. Is my math or understanding wrong here? With the 3x the salary equation, it seems like 100k is paid to the associate, 100k or so is overhead and 100k or so is pocketed by the owner.
I have colleagues in other fields of medicine who I’ve spoken to and none have been able to explain this logic. Could be because they’re paid via RVU etc.
Just looking for y’all thoughts on here .
I’m in the process of renegotiating some terms and I’m trying to understand…as an associate, how do you know when you’re being taken advantage of?
What I’m told is, whatever salary you want, should be justified be having a production value of 3x that number (eg. 100k salary should be justified by 300k collections , 200k by 600k etc)..is this true? Some of it doesn’t make sense because my understanding is that overhead for associates is 40%…maybe 50% at the most. So if you’re truly collecting 300k, 50% overhead leaves you with a $150k salary. Is my math or understanding wrong here? With the 3x the salary equation, it seems like 100k is paid to the associate, 100k or so is overhead and 100k or so is pocketed by the owner.
I have colleagues in other fields of medicine who I’ve spoken to and none have been able to explain this logic. Could be because they’re paid via RVU etc.
Just looking for y’all thoughts on here .
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