I bet I speak for many optometrists who are too busy, or too ambivalent to comment, when I say that scalpel and/or laser surgery is not something I want. But can any ophthalmologist on this forum please tell me why we can not even practice non-surgical medical primary eye care? Is it possible that any ophthalmologist on this forum would concede that we as a profession have had to beg, and plead and grovel for the right to expand our scope and therefore training over the last 2 decades. Just as our associations can be out of touch with the mainstream of optometry, are all ophthalmologists in agreement with their associations in their effort to stop any and all perceived incursion into "OMD territory"?
Can an ophthalmologist help me understand why if I studied right along side dentists in all pharmacology, anatomy, physiology, biochem, etc. classes. If I graduated from a top tier undergraduate program and then from four years of doctoral level post graduate eduction just as dentists do. If I took three separate day long national board exams, a rigorous day long multi-proctored clinical skills evaluation, a long patient assessment and management evaluation, a state licensing examination. Why can't most ODs treat POAG in California, yet across the state line in Nevada optometrists are treating glaucoma patients today. Why does a dentist have an A or B category DEA license and I have a mid-level M DEA designation. Do optometry students lack suffficient intelligence to learn how to provide primary medial eye care in four years and yet dentists in four years can provide all medical oral care.
Is it possible it has something to do with the fact the dentists do not have a competing medical specialty. Why can't ophthalmology allow us to provide medical eye care without a fight for every single solitary thing.
As an example, I am "glaucoma certified" in California. I have become Glaucoma certified by following 50 patients over 2 years with an ophthalmologist and filling out absolutely ridiculous paperwork. When my "co-managing OMD" went to sign off on all of my paperwork after 2 years he said this was the most ridiculous thing he had ever seen. He had a chance to get to know me well over those two years and knew on week one that I was fully competent and trained to treat and manage POAG. My point is that now that I am treating glaucoma with say for example Lumigan, if I have a patient that wants Latisse, I can not Rx it to her. Why?, because it is not specifically stated in the ridiculously long OMD California Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons fought at every turn scope expansion bill in California. This is what I believe frustrates ODs and probably causes some of them to overreach.
I guess what I am asking is can there be compromise or are we just gonna fight it out legislatively forever. Fight for every word in law, every bottle of medication, everything.
Can an ophthalmologist help me understand why if I studied right along side dentists in all pharmacology, anatomy, physiology, biochem, etc. classes. If I graduated from a top tier undergraduate program and then from four years of doctoral level post graduate eduction just as dentists do. If I took three separate day long national board exams, a rigorous day long multi-proctored clinical skills evaluation, a long patient assessment and management evaluation, a state licensing examination. Why can't most ODs treat POAG in California, yet across the state line in Nevada optometrists are treating glaucoma patients today. Why does a dentist have an A or B category DEA license and I have a mid-level M DEA designation. Do optometry students lack suffficient intelligence to learn how to provide primary medial eye care in four years and yet dentists in four years can provide all medical oral care.
Is it possible it has something to do with the fact the dentists do not have a competing medical specialty. Why can't ophthalmology allow us to provide medical eye care without a fight for every single solitary thing.
As an example, I am "glaucoma certified" in California. I have become Glaucoma certified by following 50 patients over 2 years with an ophthalmologist and filling out absolutely ridiculous paperwork. When my "co-managing OMD" went to sign off on all of my paperwork after 2 years he said this was the most ridiculous thing he had ever seen. He had a chance to get to know me well over those two years and knew on week one that I was fully competent and trained to treat and manage POAG. My point is that now that I am treating glaucoma with say for example Lumigan, if I have a patient that wants Latisse, I can not Rx it to her. Why?, because it is not specifically stated in the ridiculously long OMD California Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons fought at every turn scope expansion bill in California. This is what I believe frustrates ODs and probably causes some of them to overreach.
I guess what I am asking is can there be compromise or are we just gonna fight it out legislatively forever. Fight for every word in law, every bottle of medication, everything.