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What would you do in this situation?
60 year old obese female with hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes in with a week of upper abdominal pain radiating into the chest and back, with lightheadedness, and today she developed a fever. No rash, cough, vomiting, diarrhea, blood in the stool or urinary symptoms. No recent travel or exposure to ill contacts with similar symptoms. History of a cholecystectomy and appendectomy years ago. No other surgeries. Initial vitals include a temperature of 101.6F, heart rate in the 110s, normal blood pressure. She is very tender to the right upper abdomen and epigastrium without guarding. Labs reveal a mild leukocytosis of 12.5K with left shift. AST, ALT, alk phos, bilirubin, lipase, troponin, urine, and lactic acid are normal and heck, even a flu test is negative. Of course the pregnancy test is negative because you never know. Chest x-ray looks good. EKG looks good. CT of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is sure to reveal the cause of the fever, right? No... it’s totally negative. Evidence of prior cholecystectomy. No biliary duct dilation. All looks great. The patient doesn’t feel better and looks even more fatigued and nauseated despite morphine, GI cocktail, Tylenol, Zofran and fluids but the tachycardia and fever declined.
So I admitted her for observation. I didn’t like sending home undifferentiated abdominal pain with a high fever meeting sepsis criteria technically. I got SO MUCH push back from the hospitalist this week for admitting this patient. “This could be a viral syndrome... come on, ERCAT, you know this is a terrible admission! I don’t even need to tell you!”
I can’t think of many times where I’ve had a patient with belly pain and a fever without a clear source and would be interested to know what you all think and what you’d do in this situation.
60 year old obese female with hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes in with a week of upper abdominal pain radiating into the chest and back, with lightheadedness, and today she developed a fever. No rash, cough, vomiting, diarrhea, blood in the stool or urinary symptoms. No recent travel or exposure to ill contacts with similar symptoms. History of a cholecystectomy and appendectomy years ago. No other surgeries. Initial vitals include a temperature of 101.6F, heart rate in the 110s, normal blood pressure. She is very tender to the right upper abdomen and epigastrium without guarding. Labs reveal a mild leukocytosis of 12.5K with left shift. AST, ALT, alk phos, bilirubin, lipase, troponin, urine, and lactic acid are normal and heck, even a flu test is negative. Of course the pregnancy test is negative because you never know. Chest x-ray looks good. EKG looks good. CT of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is sure to reveal the cause of the fever, right? No... it’s totally negative. Evidence of prior cholecystectomy. No biliary duct dilation. All looks great. The patient doesn’t feel better and looks even more fatigued and nauseated despite morphine, GI cocktail, Tylenol, Zofran and fluids but the tachycardia and fever declined.
So I admitted her for observation. I didn’t like sending home undifferentiated abdominal pain with a high fever meeting sepsis criteria technically. I got SO MUCH push back from the hospitalist this week for admitting this patient. “This could be a viral syndrome... come on, ERCAT, you know this is a terrible admission! I don’t even need to tell you!”
I can’t think of many times where I’ve had a patient with belly pain and a fever without a clear source and would be interested to know what you all think and what you’d do in this situation.