Is there anybody that can tell me where my logic is wrong?
GTP hydrolysis to GDP inactivates ARF1. Because ARFGAP1 catalyzes the hydrolysis of GTP-->GDP, it inactivates ARF1. In the explanation from EK, they say ARFGAP1 activates ARF1 (Probably where I messed up).
ARFGAP1 knockdown (and therefore increased ARF1 activity) results in decreased lipid droplet formation. Therefore it can be reasonable to conclude that increased ARF1 activity results in decreased lipid formation.
Therefore option D would support this conclusion.
GTP hydrolysis to GDP inactivates ARF1. Because ARFGAP1 catalyzes the hydrolysis of GTP-->GDP, it inactivates ARF1. In the explanation from EK, they say ARFGAP1 activates ARF1 (Probably where I messed up).
ARFGAP1 knockdown (and therefore increased ARF1 activity) results in decreased lipid droplet formation. Therefore it can be reasonable to conclude that increased ARF1 activity results in decreased lipid formation.
Therefore option D would support this conclusion.