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Hey all,
I'm and EM doc and hoping y'all could answer a quick question for me. As I'm sure is a surprise to absolutely nobody here, we often get patients who claim "x never works for me, only the D drug does". I've always maintained that this is either a) a sign of drug-seeking behavior or b) a dosing related phenomenon, eg it's logical that 2 mg of hydromorphone is more efficacious than 2 mg of morphine.
However, I listened to a pain lecture a little bit ago where the guy was talking class differences in the response to nsaids, and I was wondering if anything has actually been described for opiods? (let's leave aside methadone for the purposes of discussion here, as I understand there actually is something to that one).
I'm and EM doc and hoping y'all could answer a quick question for me. As I'm sure is a surprise to absolutely nobody here, we often get patients who claim "x never works for me, only the D drug does". I've always maintained that this is either a) a sign of drug-seeking behavior or b) a dosing related phenomenon, eg it's logical that 2 mg of hydromorphone is more efficacious than 2 mg of morphine.
However, I listened to a pain lecture a little bit ago where the guy was talking class differences in the response to nsaids, and I was wondering if anything has actually been described for opiods? (let's leave aside methadone for the purposes of discussion here, as I understand there actually is something to that one).