Canadian Acfd Eligibility Exam

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MACEDON

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Is anybody getting ready for the next eligibility exam in Canada or has anyone recently passed or almost passed IT. I hear that the next May exam is going to be pretty much easier that the passed ones and the ones to come. NEED SOME INSIDE INFO, LET'S SHARE, LET'S UNITE, LET'S KICK ASS :smuggrin: !!!!

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It's obvious that this site is on the radar of the ACFD which makes it difficult to openly discuss some issues now.
If there are 2 or 3 other like minded people out there that are willing to get down to some solid work for the exam let me know. I passed a similar exam in Europe where we attacked the paper in a specific, systematic manner with 4 of us in the group; we all passed comfortably!! I moved to Canada as I followed my husband. The technique we used can work here, but it needs a collective approach. It doesn't matter too much which part of Canada you're in but it means spending lengthy time either on the phone if not in person. We are better of together as opposed to being individuals lost in the vastness of this country & spending years repeating the exam. Please contact me if you're interested via the contact member link.

hi chd,
am still waiting for your response,take care pls check your PM,thanks
 
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any body has take ee please tell us your experinces

and which study stuff did u study from? from where did u take it?

any body in hamilton on planing to take the ee please contact
 
other members , please post your answers,
when you reply please describe why you arrived at that answer,
also please quote any text books along with the page no, where you found the answer.
 
hi,need help with these please,thanks

46. You could use a large condenser and lateral condensation in
which alloy?
a. lathe cut
b. admixed
c. spherical
d. high copper
e. low copper
47. Which of the following can cause a deficient margin in the
proximal of an amalgam restoration?
a. tight matrix
b. no contouring of the band
c. large increment of amalgam
d. no wedge used
48. Where is recurrent decay most seen in class II composite?
a. facioproximal
b. linguoproximal
c. gingivoproximal
d. occlusal
49. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE
periodontal forces are best along the long axes of teeth.
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong
50. A patient has a high caries index short crowns and minumum
horizontal overlap. What restoration will you place?
a. ¾ crown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer
51. There is a small carious lesion in the superficial part of the
lissure. How will you treat it?
a. composite
b. sealant

c. enameloplasty
d. amalgam
52. A class V for amalgam and composite are same EXCEPT?
a. uniformly placed in dentin
b. retention grooves placed
c. sharp internal angles
d. need for contouring
53. How do you diagnose class III caries?
a. x-ray
b. vitality test
c. transillumination
54. If you are doing a class II prep and there is a a deep axial
wall, where do you place the retention?
a. on the buccal and lingual wall
55. The direction of mesial and distal walls of a Class V amalgam cavity
preparation is determined by the
a. necessity of retention
b. size of carious lesion
c. direction of the enamel rods
d. gingivoaxial and occlusoaxial line angles
56. When pins are included in an amalgam cavity preparation, the strength of the
amalgam is
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
57. It has become necessary to remove a conservative DO inlay from maxillary
second premolar. The method of choice is to
a. break the cement bond with chisel and mallet
b. use a threaded-type inlay remover to lift the inlay
c. cut the inlay out completely with rotary instruments
d. use a conventional crown and bridge remove4r to break the cement bond.
e. Cut through the isthmus to remove the proximal and the occlusal in two
pieces

58. When removing a rubber dam, the first step should be to
a. remove the clamp
b. release the holder
c. apply a water-soluble lubricant
d. cut the interseptal rubber with scissors
e. massage the gingival tissues under the dam
59. Cavity varnish is indicated under amalgam restorations because cavity
varnish
a. prevents galvanic currents from reaching the pulp
b. improves the marginal seal of the restoration
c. completely seals the dentinal tubules
d. is an effective thermal insulator
e. All of the above
60. A patient has sensitivity in a mandibular premolar. A well-condensed Class V
dental amalgam restoration was placed in the tooth five months
previously, with no discomfort for the first four months. Since then, it has
become painful. The problem probably relates to
a. marginal leakage
b. toothbrush abrasion
c. a fractured restoration
d. irreversible pupal damage
61. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental
amalgam restoration is
a. delayed expansion
b. inadequate depth at the isthmus area
c. inadequate width at the isthmus area
d. moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
62. The outline form of a cavity preparation is the
a. shape or form of the preparation after carious
dentin has been excavated
b. shape or form the preparation assumes after retention form has been
completed
c. shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth
d. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after carious dentin has
been removed
e. next step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after resistance form
has been established

63. The amount of force needed to compact direct filling gold properly is
influenced most by the
a. angle of compaction
b. surface area of the condenser
c. bulk of the surrounding tooth
d. temperature at which the gold is annealed
64. Which of the following is a reason for sealing caries into the cavity?
a. to eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp
capping
b. to produce as aseptic field when pulp exposure is inevitable
c. to allow the formation of secondary dentin before complete excavation
d. to produce a hard surface as a foundation for the sub sequent restoration
65. Adaptation of a matrix band to the gingival aspect of a class II dental
amalgam cavity preparation may be most difficult in which of the following
preparations?
a. A DO in a mandibular second molar
b. A DO in a mandibular second premolar
c. A DO in a maxillary first premolar
d. A MO in a maxillary first premolar
e. A MO in a maxillary second premolar
66. The external shape of an initial Class V carious lesion in enamel is related to
the
a. lines of Retzius
b. contour of the gingiva
c. number of enamel tufts
d. enamel lamella in the lesion
67. During preparation for a cast gold restoration, the tooth tissue that is
weakened by the cavity preparation and subjected to damage by the
forces of mastication must be
a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration
b. strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core
c. protected by restoring to full coverage of the tooth
d. beveled, and the patient reminded not to exert undue forces on the tooth

68. Different microstructure has been described for gold foil, mat gold and
granular or powered gold. It has been demonstrated at the microscopic
level that the
a. void spaces remain in any compacted gold
b. gold foil is more porous than any other form of gold
c. crystalline golds can be packed densely more readily than gold foil
d. proper compaction can remove all voids from commercially available
direct filling golds
69. Retention placed in a ClassV cavity prepared for direct filing gold should be
at
a. occlusoaxial and gingivoaxial line angles
b. mesioaxial and distoaxial line angles
c. mesiogingival and distogingival line angles
d. axial line angles circumferentially
e. none of the above
70. Within an hour after cementation of cast gold restoration on an
unanesthetized tooth,
the patient complains of a “shooting pain” every time the teeth come together.
The most probable explanation is
a. supraocclussionof the restoration
b. an allergic reaction to components of the gold alloy
c. improper removal of cement from the onlay margins
d. a galvanic current caused by the gold onlay occluding with a large
amalgam restoration
e. none of the above
71. Marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the greatest extent
with
a. amalgam alloy
b. unfilled resin
c. composite resin
d. direct filling gold
72. Threaded pins used to retain amalgam should be placed
a. parallel to each other only
b. parallel to each other and parallel to the long axis of the crown
c. so the edge of the pin channel is 0.02 mm. From the dentinoenamel
junction.
d. At 25,00 rpm to ensure that the pin reaches the full depth of the channel

e. None of the above
73. The treatment of choice for hypersensitive erosion areas is to
a. apply a sodium fluoride paste
b. place a glass ionomer restoration
c. burnish sodium metaphosphate inot the dentin
d. apply an 8% solution of stannous fluoride
e. treat the surface with orthophosphoric acid and apply resin
74. Dental floss is applied to the distal bow of the clamp and allowed to extend
from the mouth so that the
a. dental floss may be used to stabilize the clamp if
necessary
b. clamp may be easily retrieved if it slips from the
clamp forceps or the tooth
c. clamp may be easily removed from the tooth
upon completion of the procedure
d. all of the above
75. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restoration is more resistant
to fracture if the
a. pulpal depth is 1mm
b. occlusal dovetail is present
c. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
d. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed
76.Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship
between marginal leakage of an amalgam restoration and age of the
restoration?
a. marginal leakage increases as the restoration ages
b. marginal leakage decreases as the restoration ages
c. marginal leakage is severe throughout the life of the restoration
d. marginal leakage does not exist throughout the life of the restoration
77. Which of the following is a fundamental guideline that governs the outline
form of a class II cavity prepartion?
a. avoid angles in the proximal outline
b. extend the gingival margin beneath the free margin of the gingival
c. extend the margins until sound enamel is obtained within the cavity outline
d. include pits and fissures in the occlusal surface if the patient is very
susceptible to caries

78. When using the acid etch technique to restore a class IV fracture, exposed
dentin should first be covered with
a. cavity varnish
b. phosphoric acid
c. a calcium hydroxide liner
d. zinc oxide-eugenol cement
79.In preparing a cavity for restoration with composite resin combined with an
acid etch technique, all enamel cavosurface angles should be
a. well rounded
b. right angles
c. acute angles
d. obtuse angles
80. If the proximal box is too wide to allow facioaxial and linguoaxial grooves to
oppose one another, which of the following should be done?
a. cut grooves in the axial wall
b. cut retentive grooves deeper
c. use a pin or slots on the gingival floor
d. extend the preparation more on the occlusal surface
81. Threaded pins are used in large dental amalgam restorations to provide
a. retention form
b. resistance form
c. occlusal stops for opposing teeth
d. much needed reinforcement of the
amalgam
82. Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is
a. a large exposure
b. pain response to cold
c. no hemorrhage from the exposure
d. an accidental mechanical exposure in clean, dry field
e. All of the above
83. The only area where cavosurface margins or wall junctions of an onlay cavity
are never beveled or planed is where the
a. pupal wall meets the axial wall
b. gingival bevel meets the proximal external planes

c. external planes of the proximal portion join the bevel of the occlusal
portion
d. none of the above
84. In diagnosing interproximal carious lesions (class II and class III) that cannot
be explored directly, a good supplement to the radiograph is
a. reviewing the patient’s history of caries activity
b. examining the corresponding tooth in the
occluding quadrant
c. examining for color changes or loss of
translucency beneath marginal ridges
d. preparing the adjacent occlusal surface and
examining the exposed proximal dentinoenamel
junction
85. A patient returns to the dentist’s office two days after p lacement of an MO
inlay in a maxillary premolar. His complaint that the tooth is sensitive to
chewing pressure indicates
a. a leaky margin
b. lack of occlusion
c. a need for occlusal adjustment
d. a need to replacethe inlay with alloy filling
86. Using the pick-up and delivery technique, which digits of the assistant’s hand
from the “delivery” portion?
a. all five fingers
b. the thumb and first two fingers
c. the thumb and middle two fingers
d. the thumb and last two fingers
87. A 16-year old patient has large, radiolucent carious lesion on the distal
aspect of a first molar. Treatment of choice is to
a. obtain occlusal access to the pulp chamber in
anticipation of endodontic therapy
b. remove al carious material and cap the obvious
pulp exposure
c. remove all carious material, place a sedative
dressing and a plan for a pulpectomy at the next appointment
d. remove the superficial portion of the decayed
tooth tissue and place an indirect pulp cap

88. Two weeks ago, well-finished onlays were seated on maxillary second
premolar and first molar. The patient now has fractured lingual cusp on the
first premolar of the same arch. Which of the following are possible
causes?
a. the onlays are in supraocclusion
b. the onlays are in infraocclusion
c. the onlays accentuated a previous non-working contact on the first
premolar
d. the patient recently bit into a hard object
1. (a) and (c) only
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. All of the above
89. A large carious lesion on the distal surface of maxillary central incisor
involving the incisal angle is a
a. Class I lesion
b. Class II lesion
c. Class III lesion
d. pit and fissure lesion
e. smooth surface lesion
1. (a) only
2. (b) or (e)
3. (c) or (e)
4. (d) only
5. (e) only
90. In preparing a tooth to receive an onlay, a gingival bevel is used to
a. improve retention
b. remove unsupported enamel
c. place the preparation below the free gingiva
d. compensate for casting inaccuracy
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)
5. (c ) and (d)
91. Objectives of electrosurgical procedures before making impressions for cast
restorations include

a. coagulation
b. hemostasis
c. access to cavosurface margins
d. vertical reduction of the gingival crest
e. reduction of the inner wall of the gingival sulcus
1. (a), (b), (c) and (e)
2. (a),(c), (d) and (e)
3. (b), (c), and (d)
4. (b), (d), and (e)
5. All of the above
92. Resistance to proximal displacement in the ideal class II restoration is
provided by
a. the adjacent tooth
b. occlusal dovetail
c. converging proximal walls
d. retention grooves proximoaxial line angles
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b) and (c) only
5. (b) and (d) only
6. (c ) and (d)
93. The axial wall of large class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold in convex
in a mesiodistal direction in order to
a. conserve tooth tissue
b. increase retention of the foil
c. minimize pulpal irritation
d. reduce the amount of gold foil needed to complete the restoration
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c )
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b), (c ) and (d)
5. (c ) and (d) only
6. All of the above
94. Selection of appropriate bases and liners to restore the axial wall of a class II
restoration is dependant upon the
a. size of the tooth
b. biologic effect required

c. surface area to be restored
d. thickness of remaining dentin
e. thickness of the resulting restorative material
1. (a), (b) and (c )
2. (a), (d) and (e)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b), and (d) only
5. (c), (d) and (e)
95. The bur should be titled lingually when preparing the occlusal aspect of a
class II dental amalgam preparation on a mandibular first premolar in
order to
a. remove all carious tooth structure
b. prevent encroachment on the facial pulp horn
c. prevent encroachment on the lingual pulp horn
d. maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (c) and (d)
5. (d) only
96. When placing composite material in a class III preparation, the wooden
wedge is placed in order to
a. provide some seperation
b. stabilize the mylar strip
c. avoid creation of excess gingival flash
1. (a) only
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (b) only
5. All of the above
97. In developing cavosurface angles for all types or restorative materials
normally used in posterior teeth, which of the following features are
desireable?
a. Margings of the restoration placed in areas more
Easily cleaned
b. enamel rods supported by dentin
c. bevels to facilitate proper finishing
d. a definite cavosurface angle

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (b) and (d) only
5. (c) and (d)
6. All of the above
98. When making an acrylic resin temporary restoration for a large MOD onlay
preparation, which of the following precautions should be taken?
a. open margins should be avoided
b. overextended resin should be removed
c. polymerization should not go to completion in the mouth
d. occlusal surfaces should remain in slight infraocclusion to minimize
trauma to the tooth
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (b), (c) and (d)
5. All of the above
99. Forces for seating an inlay should be applied
a. with a sharp blow delivered by a mallet
b. with a sustained heavy force with an instrument
c. with properly directed occluding forces of the patient
d. after the initial set of the cement
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. All of the above
100. The specific purposes of acid etching enamel before insertion of a
composite restoration or a sealant are provided
a. a dry surface
b. less surface area
c. more surface area
d. a clean surface
e. a roughened surface
1. (a), (b), and (d)
2. (a), (c), and (d)

3. (a), (c), and (e)
4. (b), (d) and (e)
5. (b) and (e) only
6. (c) and (e) only
101. Before inserting amalgam into an MOD cavity prepartion, a matrix is placed
around the tooth. Which of the following procedures should be
accomplished next?
a. The band should be burnished into contact with
Adjacent teeth
b. the matrix retainer should be tightened as much
as possible and reinforced facially and lingually
with compound
c. tapered wedges should be placed
interproximally to obtain close adaption of the matrix at gingival margins
d. tapered wedges should be placed carefully to hold the band in close
adaption to the gingival margin without separating the teeth
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (c) only
3. (a), (c), and (d)
4. (a) and (d) only
5. (b) and (c) only
102.A deficient margin at a proximogingival cavosurface angle of a freshly
packed class II amalgam restoration may have been caused by
a. poor condensation of the amalgam
b. neglecting to wedge the matrix band
c. use of too large an initial increment of amalgam
d. debris in the corner of the proximal box
e. use of hand condensaton rather than mechanical
condensation
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b), (c) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (e) only
4. (a), (c)and (d)
5. (b), (d) and (e)
6. All of the above
103. Research data indicate that pit and fissure sealants are retained best on
which of the following teeth?
a. primary maxillary molars
b. primary mandibular molars

c. maxillary premolars
d. mandibulars premolars
e. permanent maxillary molars
f. permanent mandibular molars
1. (a), (b), (e) and (f)
2. (a), (c),and (e)
3. (b), (d) and (f)
4. (c) and (f) only
5. (e) and (f) only
104. A dentist is preparing tooth #30 for an occlusal amalgam restoration. Once
the ideal outline form and depth have been established, the dentist notes
that caries remains on the facial, pulpal, and lingual walls of the
preparation. The next step in treatment is to
a. extend the outline form
b. remove the caries with a spoon excavator
c. remove the caries with a larger round bur
105. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture
in order to
a. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
b. improve embrasure contours
c. stabilize the abutment teeth
d. improve mesiodistal spacing
106. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface
of maxillary first molar. This would most likely result in
a. arrested caries
b. extension of caries
c. discoloration of the tooth
d. increased microleakage
107. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a
hygienic pontic. Which of the following will primarily determine the
faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic?
a. the length of the pontic
b. the masticatory force of the patient
c. the position of the opposing contact areas
d. the width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge

108.Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp
during a restorative procedure?
a. prepare dentin with slow-speed burs
b. use anesthetics without vasoconstrictions
c. minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface
d. keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation
109.What is the major difference between a classV cavity preparation for
amalgam and one for composite resin by the acid-etch technique?
a. depth
b. convenience form
c. position of retention points
d. angulation of the enamel cavosurface margins
110. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a class III
composite preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva.
In response, the dentist should do which of the following?
a. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed
b. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
c. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water,
dry it with air, then proceed
d. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat
the etching procedure
111. Which of the following is the most likely indication for splinting?
a. primary occlusal trauma
b. mobility with patient discomfort
c. mobility with a decrease in tissue quality, secondary to hormonal
imbalance
d. mobility related to a unilateral “skid” from centric relation to centric
occlusion
112.How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?
a. By carving along the margins with a sharp
Instrument that rests on the tooth surface
b. by carving from the restoration to the tooth
with a sharp instrument
c. by carving from the tooth to the restoration with
a sharp instrument
d. by burnishing from the tooth to the restoration
until the amalgam is trimmed to the margin

113. In preparing a class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the
mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal surface. This divergence
serves to
a. prevent undermining of the marginal ridges
b. provide convenience form
c. resist the forces of mastication
d. extend the preparation inoto areas more readily cleansed
114. In adapting a pontic to the residual ridge, the dentist must maintain a proper
biologic and hygienic environment. Therefore, the pontic must NOT
a. be convex mesiodistally
b. touch the residual ridge
c. the concave faciolingually
d. be concave in two directions
115.Which of the following conclusions would be correct if, after six weeks, a
pulp-capped tooth were asymptomatic?
a. pulp capping was a success
b. lack of adverse symptoms might be temporary
c. reparative dentin formation at the exposure site was complete
d. adjacent odontoblasts had proliferated to cover the site of exposure
116. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is
a. increased rigidity
b. increased retention
c. increased durability
d. conservation of tooth structure
117. The cusps to be restored with dental amalgam should be reduced by
a. 1 mm while forming flattened surface
b. 1 mm while following the original contour of the cusps
c. 2 mm while forming a flattened surface
d. 2 mm while following the original contour of the cusps
118. In class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion, the ideal internal
form of the preparation has which of the following features?
a. the axial wall is flat
b. the mesial and distal walls converge
c. the occlusal and gingival walls converge
d. the axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin

119. A patient presents with an amalgam restoration fractured at the isthmus six
months after placement. The most likely cause is
a. recurrent caries
b. inadequate depth of the preparation
c. excessive width of the preparation
d. premature occlusal contact
120. To remain stable, a rubber-dam clamp must contact the anchor tooth
gingival to the height of contour. Which other criterion must the clamp
satisfy?
a. all four points must be sharp
b. all four points must contact the tooth
c. the bow must be directed to the distal side of the tooth
121. Each of the following is a reason for restoring an endodontically treated
prosterior tooth with a dowel or post EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
a. to strengthen the root
b. to enhance retention of the core
c. to enhance the lateral force resistance
122. For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it
should be
a. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth
b. rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth
c. placed in contact with the tooth before starting
123. Which of the following is the PRIMARY DETERMINANT of the outline form
of a class V preparation?
a. tooth anatomy
b. height of gingival crest
c. extension of the carious lesion
d. restorative material to be placed
124. A teen-aged patient presents with numerous proximal carious lesions that
undermine the occlusal enamel. Which of the following is the treatment-ofchoice?
a. restore involved teeth with onlays to preserve

occlusion
b. restore involved teeth as rapidly as possible using dental amalgam
c. place the patient on a prevention regimen and delay treatment until the
effectiveness of home care is evaluated
125. Why is a matrix for a class II dental amalgam restoration extended
occlusally to the cavity preparation?
a. it serves as a guide to determine the completed
restoration
b. it allows for overfilling the amalgam
c. it prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation
126.A dentist anticipates the possibility of a pulpal exposure of a vital,
asymptomatic tooth during a cavity preparation. In this situation, what
should the dentist do with the carious material?
a. remove the carious material laterally first and
the remove completely from the deeper areas of the cavity
b. remove the carious material completely and
then treat the tooth endodontically
c. leave the carious material in the deeper areas,
base, and restore appropriately
d. leave the carious material in the deeper areas,
temporize appropriately, and observe on two weeks
127. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This
process serves each of the fo llowing EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
a. to remove loose enamel rods
b. to facilitate finishing
c. to minimize marginal opening
d. to minimize the need for gingival extension
128. A fixed partial denture will be supported by both an osseointegrated impla nt
and natural teeth. Which of the following is the MOST serious potential
problem?
a. the path of insertion will be difficult
b. the implant has no hydroxylapatite coating
c. esthetics will be difficult to reproduce
d. the implant and natural teeth have different mobility
129. When seating a casting, the practitioner usually finds the initial interferences
at(on) the

a. margins
b. axial walls
c. proximal contacts
130. A conservative class II preparation for dental amalgam should have which of
the following characteristics?
a. independent retention and resistance form for both the proximal and
occlusal portions
b. proximal retention and resistance form that depends upon a well-defined
occlusal dovetail
c. as wide on the occlusal as one-third the intercuspal distance
d. preparation depth twice the width of the isthmus
131. The axial walls in an MOD cavity prepared for a cast gold onlay should
a. form acute angles with pupal wall
b. form acute angles with the proximal walls
c. diverge from the gingival walls to the pupal wall
d. converge from the gingival walls to the pupal wall
132. Each of the following determines the outline form for class III composite
restoration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. convenience for access
b. extension for prevention
c. size, shape, and location of caries
133. Each of the following is a reason for beveling a preparation for restoration
with composite resins EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. to expose more inorganic tooth structure
b. to increase the surface area of enamel for etching
c. to expose the ends rather than the sides of enamel rods
d. to enhance the enamo-resin marginal marginal seal
134. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants?
a. they have a direct structural and functional
connection with bone only at the radiographic level of detection
b. they are anchored directly to living bone as
determined by radiographic and light microscopic analyses
c. They form a junctional epithelium with the
Surrounding tissue
d. They form pseudo-periodontal ligament

135. Two adjacent cavities involving proximal contact can be prepared and
restored with composite resin at one appointment for each of the following
reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. restoration of contact is enhanced
b. access to adjacent cavities is simplified
c. color matching is easier
136. In radiographs, which of the following regions of the tooth crown is the
MOST often mistaken for carious lesion?
a. pulp horn
b. marginal ridge
c. cingulum
d. cementoenamel junction
137. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been
hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She
describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is
provoked by cold, heat, and sweets. These symptoms most likely
correspond with
a. pulp necrosis
b. reversible pulpitis
c. internal resorption
d. irreversible pulpitis
138. Which of the following is most related to the initiation of caries in the
elderly?
a. erosion
b. attrition
c. gingival recession
d. a defective restoration
139. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive
special attention. Which of the following anatomical structures might cause
soreness if the denture is overextended?
a. Masseter
b. Buccinator
c. Pterygomandibular raphe
d. Internal pterygoid
e. Lateral tendon of the temporal

140.The dentist will use the acid-etch technique to make a minimal cavity
preparation for composite resin. Each of the following is an advantage of
this technique EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It conserves tooth structure
b. It provides greater access for finishing procedures
c. It improves the esthetics of the restoration
 
Members don't see this ad :)
hi i am living in cambridge ontorio and looking for a study partner for may exam any one there
 
no more EE , ppl any idea about the new changes
no more EE after may 2009 ,
our EE marks r good till when ?
check acfd web site
 
no more EE , ppl any idea about the new changes
no more EE after may 2009 ,
our EE marks r good till when ?
check acfd web site


Proposed changes to the Eligibility Examination process

Please be advised that the ACFD Eligibility Examination (EE) process is currently under review and may change. If the proposed changes are approved, the last Eligibility Examination will be administered in May 2009. No examination would be held in September 2009. In 2010, the Eligibility Examination would be replaced by a new, in depth, Prior Learning Assessment. Providing the review is accepted, official notification of the changes to the Eligibility Examination will be sent to all ACFD candidates and announced on the ACFD website in November 2008.​
 
Last edited:
where did you get this information? I checked the website, I can't find anything...?!?
 
where did you get this information? I checked the website, I can't find anything...?!?

Hi Cankos,

This information is on the first page ...when u open the website on ur right hand side ...there is a small note on the upper corner.
 
hi,need help with these please,thanks

46. You could use a large condenser and lateral condensation in
which alloy?
a. lathe cut
b. admixed
c. sphericald. high copper
e. low copper
47. Which of the following can cause a deficient margin in the
proximal of an amalgam restoration?
a. tight matrix
b. no contouring of the band
c. large increment of amalgam
d. no wedge used
48. Where is recurrent decay most seen in class II composite?
a. facioproximal
b. linguoproximal
c. gingivoproximald. occlusal
49. Cantilever bridges are not good in the long term BECAUSE
periodontal forces are best along the long axes of teeth.
a. statement is correct reason is not
b. statement and reason are correct NOT related
c. statement and reason are correct and related
d. statement is wrong but reason is correct
e. both are wrong
50. A patient has a high caries index short crowns and minumum
horizontal overlap. What restoration will you place?
a. ¾ crown
b. jacket crown
c. PFMd. resin bonded retainer
51. There is a small carious lesion in the superficial part of the
lissure. How will you treat it?
a. composite
b. sealant
c. enameloplastyd. amalgam?????????????????
52. A class V for amalgam and composite are same EXCEPT?
a. uniformly placed in dentin
b. retention grooves placed
c. sharp internal anglesd. need for contouring
53. How do you diagnose class III caries?
a. x-ray
b. vitality test
c. transillumination
54. If you are doing a class II prep and there is a a deep axial
wall, where do you place the retention?
a. on the buccal and lingual wall

55. The direction of mesial and distal walls of a Class V amalgam cavity
preparation is determined by the
a. necessity of retention
b. size of carious lesion
c. direction of the enamel rods
d. gingivoaxial and occlusoaxial line angles
56. When pins are included in an amalgam cavity preparation, the strength of the
amalgam is
a. increased
b. decreasedc. unchanged

57. It has become necessary to remove a conservative DO inlay from maxillary
second premolar. The method of choice is to
a. break the cement bond with chisel and mallet
b. use a threaded-type inlay remover to lift the inlay
c. cut the inlay out completely with rotary instruments
d. use a conventional crown and bridge remove4r to break the cement bond.
e. Cut through the isthmus to remove the proximal and the occlusal in two
pieces

58. When removing a rubber dam, the first step should be to
a. remove the clamp
b. release the holder
c. apply a water-soluble lubricant
d. cut the interseptal rubber with scissors???
e. massage the gingival tissues under the dam
59. Cavity varnish is indicated under amalgam restorations because cavity
varnish
a. prevents galvanic currents from reaching the pulp
b. improves the marginal seal of the restorationc. completely seals the dentinal tubules
d. is an effective thermal insulator
e. All of the above
60. A patient has sensitivity in a mandibular premolar. A well-condensed Class V
dental amalgam restoration was placed in the tooth five months
previously, with no discomfort for the first four months. Since then, it has
become painful. The problem probably relates to
a. marginal leakage
b. toothbrush abrasion
c. a fractured restoration
d. irreversible pupal damage

61. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental
amalgam restoration is
a. delayed expansion
b. inadequate depth at the isthmus area
c. inadequate width at the isthmus aread. moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
62. The outline form of a cavity preparation is the
a. shape or form of the preparation after carious
dentin has been excavated
???????????
b. shape or form the preparation assumes after retention form has been
completed
c. shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth
d. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after carious dentin has
been removed
e. next step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after resistance form
has been established

63. The amount of force needed to compact direct filling gold properly is
influenced most by the
a. angle of compaction
b. surface area of the condenserc. bulk of the surrounding tooth
d. temperature at which the gold is annealed
64. Which of the following is a reason for sealing caries into the cavity?
a. to eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp
capping
b. to produce as aseptic field when pulp exposure is inevitable
c. to allow the formation of secondary dentin before complete excavation
d. to produce a hard surface as a foundation for the sub sequent restoration
65. Adaptation of a matrix band to the gingival aspect of a class II dental
amalgam cavity preparation may be most difficult in which of the following
preparations?
a. A DO in a mandibular second molar
b. A DO in a mandibular second premolar
c. A DO in a maxillary first premolar
d. A MO in a maxillary first premolare. A MO in a maxillary second premolar
66. The external shape of an initial Class V carious lesion in enamel is related to
the
a. lines of Retzius??????????????????:confused:
b. contour of the gingiva
c. number of enamel tufts
d. enamel lamella in the lesion
67. During preparation for a cast gold restoration, the tooth tissue that is
weakened by the cavity preparation and subjected to damage by the
forces of mastication must be
a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration
b. strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core
c. protected by restoring to full coverage of the toothd. beveled, and the patient reminded not to exert undue forces on the tooth

68. Different microstructure has been described for gold foil, mat gold and
granular or powered gold. It has been demonstrated at the microscopic
level that the....................:confused::confused::confused:
a. void spaces remain in any compacted gold
b. gold foil is more porous than any other form of gold
c. crystalline golds can be packed densely more readily than gold foil
d. proper compaction can remove all voids from commercially available
direct filling golds
69. Retention placed in a ClassV cavity prepared for direct filing gold should be
at
a. occlusoaxial and gingivoaxial line anglesb. mesioaxial and distoaxial line angles
c. mesiogingival and distogingival line angles
d. axial line angles circumferentially
e. none of the above
70. Within an hour after cementation of cast gold restoration on an
unanesthetized tooth,
the patient complains of a “shooting pain” every time the teeth come together.
The most probable explanation is
a. supraocclussionof the restoration
b. an allergic reaction to components of the gold alloy
c. improper removal of cement from the onlay margins
d. a galvanic current caused by the gold onlay occluding with a large
amalgam restoration
e. none of the above
71. Marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the greatest extent
with
a. amalgam alloyb. unfilled resin
c. composite resin
d. direct filling gold
72. Threaded pins used to retain amalgam should be placed
a. :confused:
b. parallel to each other and parallel to the long axis of the crown
c. so the edge of the pin channel is 0.02 mm. From the dentinoenamel
junction.
d. At 25,00 rpm to ensure that the pin reaches the full depth of the channel

e. None of the above
73. The treatment of choice for hypersensitive erosion areas is to
a. apply a sodium fluoride paste
b. [place a glass ionomer restoration]c. burnish sodium metaphosphate inot the dentin
d. apply an 8% solution of stannous fluoride
e. treat the surface with orthophosphoric acid and apply resin[/COLOR
]74. Dental floss is applied to the distal bow of the clamp and allowed to extend
from the mouth so that the
a. dental floss may be used to stabilize the clamp if
necessary
b. clamp may be easily retrieved if it slips from the
clamp forceps or the tooth
c. clamp may be easily removed from the tooth
upon completion of the procedure
d. all of the above
75. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restoration is more resistant
to fracture if the
a. pulpal depth is 1mm
b. occlusal dovetail is present
c. axiopulpal line angle is roundedd. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed
76.Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship
between marginal leakage of an amalgam restoration and age of the
restoration?
a. marginal leakage increases as the restoration ages
b. marginal leakage decreases as the restoration agesc. marginal leakage is severe throughout the life of the restoration
d. marginal leakage does not exist throughout the life of the restoration
77. Which of the following is a fundamental guideline that governs the outline
form of a class II cavity prepartion?
a. avoid angles in the proximal outline
b. extend the gingival margin beneath the free margin of the gingival
c. extend the margins until sound enamel is obtained within the cavity outline
d. include pits and fissures in the occlusal surface if the patient is very
susceptible to caries

78. When using the acid etch technique to restore a class IV fracture, exposed
dentin should first be covered with
a. cavity varnish
b. phosphoric acid
c. a calcium hydroxide linerd. zinc oxide-eugenol cement
79.In preparing a cavity for restoration with composite resin combined with an
acid etch technique, all enamel cavosurface angles should be
a. well rounded
b. right angles
c. acute angles
d. obtuse angles- i mean bevel
80. If the proximal box is too wide to allow facioaxial and linguoaxial grooves to
oppose one another, which of the following should be done?
a. cut grooves in the axial wall
b. cut retentive grooves deeper
c. use a pin or slots on the gingival floor:confused::confused:
d. extend the preparation more on the occlusal surface
81. Threaded pins are used in large dental amalgam restorations to provide
a. retention formb. resistance form
c. occlusal stops for opposing teeth
d. much needed reinforcement of the
amalgam
82. Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is
a. a large exposure
b. pain response to cold
c. no hemorrhage from the exposure
d. an accidental mechanical exposure in clean, dry field
e. All of the above


83. The only area where cavosurface margins or wall junctions of an onlay cavity
are never beveled or planed is where the
a. pupal wall meets the axial wall
b. gingival bevel meets the proximal external planes

c. external planes of the proximal portion join the bevel of the occlusal
portion
d. none of the above:confused::scared:
84. In diagnosing interproximal carious lesions (class II and class III) that cannot
be explored directly, a good supplement to the radiograph is
a. reviewing the patient’s history of caries activity
b. examining the corresponding tooth in the
occluding quadrant
c. examining for color changes or loss of
translucency beneath marginal ridges
d. preparing the adjacent occlusal surface and
examining the exposed proximal dentinoenamel
junction
85. A patient returns to the dentist’s office two days after p lacement of an MO
inlay in a maxillary premolar. His complaint that the tooth is sensitive to
chewing pressure indicates
a. a leaky margin
b. lack of occlusion
c. a need for occlusal adjustmentd. a need to replacethe inlay with alloy filling
86. Using the pick-up and delivery technique, which digits of the assistant’s hand
from the “delivery” portion?
a. all five fingers
b. the thumb and first two fingersc. the thumb and middle two fingers
d. the thumb and last two fingers
 
Hi,

Your course books, dental decks should be read.
but for the new format (after May 2009) of EE exam that should be posted on acfd website.. we need some other kind of preparation material which I do not know yet, if changes in the format are major.

Hi
I am planning for EE Exam.Can any one give me advice about books?How can i collect and what should i follow?thanx
my e-mail add [email protected]
 
Information for Graduates of Non-accredited Programs

The Association of Canadian Faculties of Dentistry (ACFD/AFDC) facilitates graduates of non-accredited dental programs in becoming licensed practitioners in Canada by providing the Eligibility Examination/Prior Learning Assessment (PLA) for general dentists and the Dental Specialty Core Knowledge Examination (DSCKE) for graduates of specialty programs.
The Eligibility Examination is currently an admissions requirement used by dental education institutions that provide a Qualifying Program or a Degree Completion Program for general dentists. In 2010, the PLA will replace the Eligibility Examination as the requirement for entry into these programs.
The DSCKE is used to facilitate the admission process for entry into Dental Specialty Assessment and Training Programs (DSATP) offered at various Canadian faculties of dentistry.
 
This has divided the candidates. Few can apply as geenral dentist and few as specialised dentists.

Information for Graduates of Non-accredited Programs

The Association of Canadian Faculties of Dentistry (ACFD/AFDC) facilitates graduates of non-accredited dental programs in becoming licensed practitioners in Canada by providing the Eligibility Examination/[B]Prior Learning Assessment (PLA) for general dentists and the Dental Specialty Core Knowledge Examination (DSCKE) for graduates of specialty programs. [/B] The Eligibility Examination is currently an admissions requirement used by dental education institutions that provide a Qualifying Program or a Degree Completion Program for general dentists. In 2010, the PLA will replace the Eligibility Examination as the requirement for entry into these programs.
The DSCKE is used to facilitate the admission process for entry into Dental Specialty Assessment and Training Programs (DSATP) offered at various Canadian faculties of dentistry.
 
CAN U CORRECT ME IF I AM WRONG?????

. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp.:thumbup:
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
2. The location and extent of subgingival calculus is
most accurately determined clinically by
A. radiopaque solution used in conjunction
with radiographs.
B. disclosing solution.
C. probing with a fine instrument.:thumbup:
D. visual inspection.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp.
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
Thanks
 
3. A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in
an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is
A. marginal gingivitis.
B. painful, burning gingivae.
C. hyperplastic gingivitis.
D. drifting of the teeth.:thumbup:
4. In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is
located
A. within basal bone.
B. coronal to alveolar bone crest.
C. apical to alveolar bone cre?????
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft?????
E. No treatment.
6. The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal
pocket may result in
A. cyst formation.
B. abscess formation.????
C. epithelial hyperplasia.
D. increased calculus formation.
7. For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute
localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment
must include
A. scaling and root planing.????
B. occlusal adjustment.
C. prescription of an antibiotic.
D. prescription of an analgesic.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.????
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
9.10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.:?????
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.:thumbup:
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12.12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)????
B. (1) and (3)????
C. (2) and (4)????
D. (4) only.????
E. All of the above.????
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of alveolar bone:
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.:thumbup:
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
14. Which of the following systemic diseases does/do
NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis?
1. Cyclic neutropenia.
2. Diabetes mellitus.
3. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)???
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
15. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a
painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B. aggressive periodontitis.
C. idiopathic fibromatosis.
D. aphthous stomatitis.
 
Hi,

Your course books, dental decks should be read.
but for the new format (after May 2009) of EE exam that should be posted on acfd website.. we need some other kind of preparation material which I do not know yet, if changes in the format are major.
Hi ,
Thanks for your reply .I am searching deck 2007 .In vancouver how can i collect ?
 
hi ,
Try to buy on ebay. hopefully you may find it.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Cinderella
Hi ,
Can you please tell me how can i buy dental deck in canada .
Cinderella












Hi ,
Thanks for your reply .I am searching deck 2007 .In vancouver how can i collect ?
 
Hi, tried to answer some


A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in
an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is
A. marginal gingivitis.
B. painful, burning gingivae.
C. hyperplastic gingivitis.
D. drifting of the teeth.:thumbup:
4. In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is
located
A. within basal bone.
B. coronal to alveolar bone crest.
C. apical to alveolar bone crest:)
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft?????
E. No treatment.
6. The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal
pocket may result in
A. cyst formation.
B. abscess formation.????
C. epithelial hyperplasia.
D. increased calculus formation.
7. For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute
localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment
must include
A. scaling and root planing.????
B. occlusal adjustment.
C. prescription of an antibiotic.
D. prescription of an analgesic.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.????
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
9.10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.:)
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.:?????
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.:thumbup:
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12.12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)????
B. (1) and (3)????
C. (2) and (4)????
D. (4) only.????
E. All of the above.????
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of alveolar bone:
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.:thumbup:
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
14. Which of the following systemic diseases does/do
NOT predispose a patient to periodontitis?
1. Cyclic neutropenia.
2. Diabetes mellitus.
3. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
4. Hereditary hypohydrotic ectodermal
dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)???
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only:)
E. All of the above.
15. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a
painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis:).
B. aggressive periodontitis.
C. idiopathic fibromatosis.
D. aphthous stomatitis.[/quote]
 
any body tell me what is focus of exam ? what is study material ? iam graduated from us dental school. going to take NDBE exam
thanks
 
hi ,
Try to buy on ebay. hopefully you may find it.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Cinderella
Hi ,
Can you please tell me how can i buy dental deck in canada .
Cinderella

Try contacting Naresh , he might ship them out to you
 
1, The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of
large cavity in permanent molar tooth is

A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars
B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars
C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars
D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars
E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

2, The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal
height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether

A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after
treatment

B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper
retention of the crowns

C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for
adequate periodontal support

D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to
warrant the planned reconstruction
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
3, In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture
the study cast

A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays
B. minimize the need for articulating
C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is
best assessed clinically
D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are no available

thanks in advance!
 
Last edited:
1,What is the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several days
after obturation?

A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical
region.
B. Under filling the root canal system
C. Over filled root canal
----------------------------------------------------------------
2,Following extraction of the molar teeth

A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible
B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect
than the buccal
C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch
D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose
more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal .

--------------------------------------------------------------------

3,Why do you polish the teeth before seating of partial
dentures?

A. To smooth the rough surface
B. To minimize the retention of plaque
C. To increase the adaptability of occlusal rests
------------------------------------------------------------------------

4,Retentive part of clasp position is

A. Below the survey line
B. Above survey line
C. As close as possible to the gingival margins.

thanks in advance!
 
Hi, Do you know if they changed references for May 2009?
Do you know if there is any question from Dental Decks part I?
 
hi
i have few books to be sold for ee preperation.i am in brampton if u are interested plz reply me on my PM
 
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