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Have those who done NMS Surgery Casebook found it helpful for the NBME? I gave it one pass and not sure if it's worth a second...
Have those who done NMS Surgery Casebook found it helpful for the NBME? I gave it one pass and not sure if it's worth a second...
I thought it was helpful. I wouldn't say it can be used as a sole resource as there isn't much in it on pathophysiology (which does get tested on the shelf), but the NMS casebook offers a good framework on how to approach a work-up for a certain problem and/or how to organize a list of differential diagnoses. But whether you should read it (or notes/highlights from it) again depends on how close to the shelf you are. You may be better served with other resources if the exam date is closing in.
Answers to some in quote. Anyone have any idea on the jaundice question? Thanks!
Form 3 question:
What is the best imaging method to screen for cervical trauma? Patient is s/p MVC with facial lacerations, HR 120 BP 100/70 (this is the only information provided in the q).
-- A: CT
-- B: lateral x-ray
-- C: MRI
-- D: myelography
-- E: tomography
CT is incorrect. I know xray is preferred if no other major trauma needs to be evaluated (per UTD) but presence of facial lacerations makes me want a CT. It also doesn't specify if there are concerns for any other chest/abdomen injuries, in which case I would also get a CT.
Abscess is correct for the first one and I also agree with no primary closure for human bites.
NBME 3:
60 F, dysphagia x3 mos. 10 year hx heartburn. Unremarkable physical exam. Barium swallow shows 2 cm tapered esophageal stricture with moderate dilatation of proximal esophagus, Most appropriate initial step in mgmt?
A) hydrostatic balloon dilatation (no)
B) endoscopic placement of siastic feeding tube
C) esophagoscopy and biopsy
D) antireflux operation (would this be the answer? fundoplication?)
E) esophageal resection
Thanks @seminoma. I thought the timing was a little off for overproduction of bili but I guess I'm not sure how long it takes for conjugation to occur. I did think hemolysis would closer to the transfusion though-- any thoughts?Jaundice one is overproduction of bili. Patient got 10 units and now has a mixed hyperbili (2.3 Dbili, 2.7indirect bili). Liver is putting out tons of dbili leading to overflow into circulation (high Dbili) and at the same time is being overwhelmed by increased hemolysis of those 10 units of pRBCs (high indirect).
You know there's no issues with the liver because GGT is normal. You also know there's no biliary obstruction because alk phos is normal.
It's lateral xray. Patient is tachy and borderline hypotensive. Xray them in the trauma bay with option to go to CT once they're for sure stabilized. Also, FYI classic teaching is that lateral xray is "best" for cervical spine injuries, however in the more modern world with rapid CT (and more widely available CT), the use of CT is becoming more common. I think that tidbit is in Pestana or NMS casebook.
Except on the face.
Thanks @seminoma. I thought the timing was a little off for overproduction of bili but I guess I'm not sure how long it takes for conjugation to occur. I did think hemolysis would closer to the transfusion though-- any thoughts?
Thanks @seminoma. I thought the timing was a little off for overproduction of bili but I guess I'm not sure how long it takes for conjugation to occur. I did think hemolysis would closer to the transfusion though-- any thoughts?
Maybe benign postoperative cholestasis? She has increased pigment load from all the transfusions with decreased urinary excretion and ability to conjugate all that bilirubin from hypotensive induced renal and liver dysfunction. Also with the bilirubin levels peaking around POD#10.Honestly I don't know anything about the timeline. To be clear, I don't think this is a transfusion reaction. I think it's just a physiologic response to a large bolus of RBCs in a patient who likely has some renal dysfunction following trauma, hypotension, and surgery. In addition, all other answers seem incorrect based on the normal GGT and alk phos.
Maybe benign postoperative cholestasis? She has increased pigment load from all the transfusions with decreased urinary excretion and ability to conjugate all that bilirubin from hypotensive induced renal and liver dysfunction. Also with the bilirubin levels peaking around POD#10.
Yup. It's elevated at 150 depending on what lab reference values you're using. UW lists upper limit as 115 for females.I thought alk phos was elevated in postop cholestasis?
I think you got them all except for #3. I'd go with strep pyogenes causing erysipelas. Also check out MVP syndrome as the cause for the palpitations.I have a couple questions from the NBMEs. Shelf tomorrow.
I have two on form 4, I'd like to discuss:
what are the correct answers and reasonings behind it? Thanks!
Any ideas?
1. Person shot in leg and has absent pulses from popliteal down
2. XRay shows femoral fracture
3. Fracture reduced and immobilized
Next step?
1. Duplex ultrasound?
2. Measurement of ABI?
3. Surgery?
I was thinking ABI to see if reducing fracture had stopped the femoral artery occlusion. I'm assuming surgery is best
Any ideas?
1. Person shot in leg and has absent pulses from popliteal down
2. XRay shows femoral fracture
3. Fracture reduced and immobilized
Next step?
1. Duplex ultrasound?
2. Measurement of ABI?
3. Surgery?
I was thinking ABI to see if reducing fracture had stopped the femoral artery occlusion. I'm assuming surgery is best
Ultrasound first. It's very quick, and if you're thinking surgery is necessary, you need to know location. Look up what an ABI is - it's used more for evaluation of PAD, not an acute process like this, and it can take quite a while to do and get results. AKA if you're thinking they may need vascular surgery imminently, waiting for the ABI isn't going to give you any valuable information and it would just waste time.
The most important test is to perform an ABI in the trauma bay. Anything abnormal (<0.9) mandates either a CTA or immediate operative exploration. I would get a CTA in patients that I suspect have underlying vascular disease that is clouding the ABI or in patients that I think the CTA will change my operative approach, ie. may be able to do something endo or different incision. Always reduce fracture before CTA or vascular intervention.
An ABI can be performed by anyone, it is not a time consuming test. At our trauma center (one of the busiest in the country), it is the MS3's job on trauma to get the ABIs on all extremity trauma patients. Duplex on the other hand is far more time consuming and does not give you any additional information in the absence of prior intervention.
Also, lack of pulse does not mean occlusion. It means less than ~90mmHg of pressure. 80% of my patients do not have palpable pedal pulses. Many have arterial occlusions, but most do not.
The most important test is to perform an ABI in the trauma bay. Anything abnormal (<0.9) mandates either a CTA or immediate operative exploration. I would get a CTA in patients that I suspect have underlying vascular disease that is clouding the ABI or in patients that I think the CTA will change my operative approach, ie. may be able to do something endo or different incision. Always reduce fracture before CTA or vascular intervention.
An ABI can be performed by anyone, it is not a time consuming test. At our trauma center (one of the busiest in the country), it is the MS3's job on trauma to get the ABIs on all extremity trauma patients. Duplex on the other hand is far more time consuming and does not give you any additional information in the absence of prior intervention.
Also, lack of pulse does not mean occlusion. It means less than ~90mmHg of pressure. 80% of my patients do not have palpable pedal pulses. Many have arterial occlusions, but most do not.
Thanks for the reply - what would you say the answer is (NBME says it is not ABI)?
This is what's frustrating about 3rd year shelves, because here we see a vascular surgeon saying he would do ABI first, but I just finished surgery and that question's answer was surgery.
This isn't about 3rd year shelves, this is about medical education. You will find equally boneheaded questions on my in-service exam. I have no idea what the answer is that they are looking for. I can only say what we do in practice and that experts in the field think is best. *shrug*
Pulselessness = surgery. In the absence of a "hard sign" of vascular injury, ABI would be indicated.Any ideas?
1. Person shot in leg and has absent pulses from popliteal down
2. XRay shows femoral fracture
3. Fracture reduced and immobilized
Next step?
1. Duplex ultrasound?
2. Measurement of ABI?
3. Surgery?
I was thinking ABI to see if reducing fracture had stopped the femoral artery occlusion. I'm assuming surgery is best
i dont agree with you
Surgery Form 3 CSMS question:
A 22 year old man comes to the emergency department because of a swollen, painful, and slightly plethoric right lower extremity. He has had two episodes of superficial thrombophlebitis of the right lower extremity; the first episode occurred 30 months ago and the second episode occurred 18 months ago. Venous duplex scan confirms deep venous thrombosis involving the infrapopliteal veins.
select the most likely diagnosis.
A) Anticardiolipin antibodies
B) Antithrombin III deficiency
C) Fibrinogen abnormality
D) Hemophilia
E) Thrombathenia
F) Thrombocytopenia
G) Thrombocytosis
H) von Willebrand disease
G is wrong
Can anybody help with this question? Thanks.
How'd it go today? I just finished a few hours ago. I'm pretty sure everyone at my school had the same form but not sure if different schools have the same form as us.Taking this bad boy tomorrow !!
Will post an update in a few days with the result.
87 raw! super happy with it! (Percentile is somewhere in the 90's since avg was ~73 with STD=8)How'd it go today? I just finished a few hours ago. I'm pretty sure everyone at my school had the same form but not sure if different schools have the same form as us.
This is only my second shelf because our IM is 3 months long and we don't have an EM shelf. I felt OK coming out of the IM shelf and ended up doing very well. This one I came out feeling like I was repeatedly kicked in the gut. It was terrible. I wonder if this bodes poorly for me.
I scored between 87 and 96 on the clinical mastery series forms 1-4 but I felt like this was so much harder. I would be shocked if I got above an 80 at this point.
Is the surgery shelf known for being a beast compared to others?
I was wondering if someone could help me with these following questions from NBME Form 3 from Surgery.
1. 57 y/o female w/3 month hx of cough, which has been increasing in freq the last month, has hemoptysis once. she is a smoker, was diagnosed with NSCLC (3 cm mass). Pre-op testing shows:
FEV1 for left Lung: 600 ml
Maximum voluntary ventilation: 50% of predicted
DCLO: 50% of predicted
ABG on Room Air shows:
PCO2: 44 mm Hg
Po2: 75 mm Hg
Which of the following parameters is likely the most useful in assessing this patients post-op risk for pneumonectomy?
A. Arterial pC02
B. Arterial Po2
C. DLCO
D. FEV1
E. MVV
2. 64 y/o male undergoes repair of AAA, mid operation retroaortic renal vein is lacerated, patient loses large amount of blood. He is given 4L of blood retained by the auto-transfusion device, 22 units of packed RBC are given. However patient is still bleeding from IV and Arterial catheter sites.
A. Anticardiolipin antibodies
B. Anti-Thrombin III Def.
C. Hemophilia
D. Thromboasthenia
E. Thrombocytopenia
F. Thrombocytosis
G. Fibrinogen Abnormality
H. von Williebrand Disease
3. 37 y/o woman comes to ER 12 hours after RLQ abdominal pain, nausea and decreased appetitie. RLQ Abdomen is tender to palpation, Pelvic exam is unremarkable. Leukocyte Count: 13,500 UA shows several WBC. Most appropriate next step?
A. Colon Contrast studies
B. Upper GI Series w/Small Bowel Follow Through
C. IV Pyleography
D. Culdocentesis
E. Appendectomy
4. 20 y/o man comes to the ED w/1 day after onset of fever and severe pain at the base of the spine between the gluteal folds. his temperature is 38.3 (101F). There is tender fullness with slight erythema between the gluteal folds over the coccyx. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anal Fissure
B. Cellulits
C. Fistula in Ano
D. Perirectal abscess
E. Pilonidal abscess
I was really confused with this one, I picked Perirectal but it wasn't the answer.
5. A 3-week old female newborn is brought to the physician w/an 18-day hx of increasingly yellow skina nd eyes. She was born at term to a 24 y/o G2P2 w/uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery; birth weight: 7 lbs, exclusively breast-fed. Today she weighs 7 lbs, 6 oz. PE: scleral icterus and genearlized jaundice. Serum Total Bili: 15 mg/dl w/direct component of 13 mg/dL. What is the diagnosis?
A. ABO Incompataibility
B. Biliary Atresia
C. Breast Milk Jaundice
D. Gilbert Syndrome
E. Hereditary spherocytosis
F. Physiologic Jaundice
I went with C, here but it wasn't the answer, I was debating between that and Gilbert's.
Keep going through Uworld (surgery, GI, Renal) multiple times and use pestana. I haven't used MTB but I think I can say with certainty that Pestana is much better for the shelf and should be a very high priority.I am getting crushed by Uworld... I read MTB and it's not helping. I am going to see if I can squeeze in Pestana... Anything else I should do?
Keep going through Uworld (surgery, GI, Renal) multiple times and use pestana. I haven't used MTB but I think I can say with certainty that Pestana is much better for the shelf and should be a very high priority.
Keep going through Uworld (surgery, GI, Renal) multiple times and use pestana. I haven't used MTB but I think I can say with certainty that Pestana is much better for the shelf and should be a very high priority.
I would go with colon contrast study for #3. If the appendix does not fill, then appendectomy.
#5 Biliary atresia
These are the answers I put (confirmed correct b/c not in my incorrects):I was wondering if someone could help me with these following questions from NBME Form 3 from Surgery.
1. 57 y/o female w/3 month hx of cough, which has been increasing in freq the last month, has hemoptysis once. she is a smoker, was diagnosed with NSCLC (3 cm mass). Pre-op testing shows:
FEV1 for left Lung: 600 ml
Maximum voluntary ventilation: 50% of predicted
DCLO: 50% of predicted
ABG on Room Air shows:
PCO2: 44 mm Hg
Po2: 75 mm Hg
Which of the following parameters is likely the most useful in assessing this patients post-op risk for pneumonectomy?
A. Arterial pC02
B. Arterial Po2
C. DLCO
D. FEV1
E. MVV
2. 64 y/o male undergoes repair of AAA, mid operation retroaortic renal vein is lacerated, patient loses large amount of blood. He is given 4L of blood retained by the auto-transfusion device, 22 units of packed RBC are given. However patient is still bleeding from IV and Arterial catheter sites.
A. Anticardiolipin antibodies
B. Anti-Thrombin III Def.
C. Hemophilia
D. Thromboasthenia
E. Thrombocytopenia
F. Thrombocytosis
G. Fibrinogen Abnormality
H. von Williebrand Disease
3. 37 y/o woman comes to ER 12 hours after RLQ abdominal pain, nausea and decreased appetitie. RLQ Abdomen is tender to palpation, Pelvic exam is unremarkable. Leukocyte Count: 13,500 UA shows several WBC. Most appropriate next step?
A. Colon Contrast studies
B. Upper GI Series w/Small Bowel Follow Through
C. IV Pyleography
D. Culdocentesis
E. Appendectomy
4. 20 y/o man comes to the ED w/1 day after onset of fever and severe pain at the base of the spine between the gluteal folds. his temperature is 38.3 (101F). There is tender fullness with slight erythema between the gluteal folds over the coccyx. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anal Fissure
B. Cellulits
C. Fistula in Ano
D. Perirectal abscess
E. Pilonidal abscess
I was really confused with this one, I picked Perirectal but it wasn't the answer.
5. A 3-week old female newborn is brought to the physician w/an 18-day hx of increasingly yellow skina nd eyes. She was born at term to a 24 y/o G2P2 w/uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery; birth weight: 7 lbs, exclusively breast-fed. Today she weighs 7 lbs, 6 oz. PE: scleral icterus and genearlized jaundice. Serum Total Bili: 15 mg/dl w/direct component of 13 mg/dL. What is the diagnosis?
A. ABO Incompataibility
B. Biliary Atresia
C. Breast Milk Jaundice
D. Gilbert Syndrome
E. Hereditary spherocytosis
F. Physiologic Jaundice
I went with C, here but it wasn't the answer, I was debating between that and Gilbert's.
I was looking at Pestana, NMS surgery casebook, and surgical recall (+Lawrence required by my school).What is the go to resources for this shelf?
I was looking at doing
Pestana
uWorld
NMS Big Book as time permits
am i missing any gold resource?