Glucose and Hormone Question

This forum made possible through the generous support of SDN members, donors, and sponsors. Thank you.
Joined
Mar 6, 2013
Messages
1,537
Reaction score
2,154
Why does it make metabolic sense for the same hormone signal to stimulate glycogenolysis and inhibit glycolysis in the liver while stimulating both glycogenolysis and glycolysis in muscles?

Members don't see this ad.
 
The goal would be to increase blood glucose to make it available to peripheral tissue. Glycogenolysis predominately takes place in the liver where glycogen is stored, so why would you want the liver to increase glycolysis, and use up most of the glucose it just generated?
 
The goal would be to increase blood glucose to make it available to peripheral tissue. Glycogenolysis predominately takes place in the liver where glycogen is stored, so why would you want the liver to increase glycolysis, and use up most of the glucose it just generated?
Why would glycolysis continue in muscle cells then if that would also destroy the created glucose from muscle glycogen?
 
Why would glycolysis continue in muscle cells then if that would also destroy the created glucose from muscle glycogen?

Because the whole point of glycogenolysis and inhibition of glycolysis in the liver is to shunt energy (glucose) to your muscles so that you can survive. If you can't move, you're as good as dead. If your heart stops beating, you're dead. So the muscles need energy (glucose) to continue functioning and therefore they will use glycolysis as a way of making that energy from glucose.
 
Top