Full licensure after 1 year postgrad MD training?

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InfoNerd101

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I know that in some states (or most to some extent) they allow an MD take they're boards and get full licensure after 1 year of post grad residency or internship training?

At that point what are they called/ considered and what can they do? Are they a general practitioner? And if so what is the difference between them and Family practitioners?

I ask because I wondered what one can do with this licensure if they can't match residency or finish residency for some reason?

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I know that in some states (or most to some extent) they allow an MD take they're boards and get full licensure after 1 year of post grad residency or internship training?

At that point what are they called/ considered and what can they do? Are they a general practitioner? And if so what is the difference between them and Family practitioners?

I ask because I wondered what one can do with this licensure if they can't match residency or finish residency for some reason?

The difference between a GP and an FP is a three year residency. Completing the residency makes you eligible for board certification.

More jobs are requiring that you at least be board eligible (i.e. you've finished residency, even if you don't take the certifying exam).

If you are a GP, you might still get a job on a Native American reservation or in a prison. Some urgent care centers may be willing to hire you as well. You will have fewer job options as a GP, though.
 
I know that in some states (or most to some extent) they allow an MD take they're boards and get full licensure after 1 year of post grad residency or internship training?

In the state of Ohio, anyone that passes all three Steps and successfully completes one year of residency training is eligible for an OH medical license. However, you cannot sit for board examination since you wouldn't be board eligible. You can get a job if anyone is willing to hire a physician who's not board certified/board eligible (as smq123 mentioned, typically those employers are prisons, urgent care centers, and Indian reservation clinics).
 
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Same thing in Texas -- intern year, 3 steps and you can get your license and work at UC (or sleep at surgical centers that just need a doc to cover overnight emergencies), you can open your own clinic but you'll be cash pay, medicare/Medicaid eligible -- or you could always go DPC since your clients are cash pay and you don't take insurance in DPC. Local guy here in North Dallas actually did intern year at my residency, got licensed, bailed, opened his own place in the parlor of his very nice antebellum historical home in the downtown section of a small quaint burb and uses a rebuilt 1971 ambulance as his advertising since the city won't let him put up signs in the historical district. takes his time with his patients and has a waiting list -- people love him --- has a great bedside manner and knows his stuff well.
 
So what is the difference between a 1 year post grad intern training or 1 year post grad residency training?

Are there one year stand alone inernship trainings not affiliated with a residency?
 
So what is the difference between a 1 year post grad intern training or 1 year post grad residency training?

Are there one year stand alone internship trainings not affiliated with a residency?

The first year of residency is your "intern" year...so it is really semantics. There are preliminary residency through IM and surgery that are only one year but are meant for those trying to parlay into a categorical spot or to bide time until there primary residency starts as a PGY-2.
 
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So what is the difference between a 1 year post grad intern training or 1 year post grad residency training?

Are there one year stand alone inernship trainings not affiliated with a residency?

in addition to what @JonMonkey said, there's also a "rotating general internship" that can be found at certain places -- like Plaza Medical Center in Ft. Worth; People enter these programs for various reasons -- some need it to qualify for programs that are PGY2 and beyond, others use it to gain experience/qualifications to apply to PGY2 slots in their residency of choice so they don't have to overcome a year of doing nothing on their residency application if they didn't match; others plan on being a GP and don't want board certification. there's a few wild eyed madmen that are proclaiming a phenomenal amount of non-BC/BE physicians in the country and that there's a trend that way --- I've not seen evidence of it -- most consumers (and that's what medicine is now) want some sort of "stamp of approval" and that takes the form of BC -- not right, not wrong, just the way it is.
 
in addition to what @JonMonkey said, there's also a "rotating general internship" that can be found at certain places -- like Plaza Medical Center in Ft. Worth; People enter these programs for various reasons -- some need it to qualify for programs that are PGY2 and beyond, others use it to gain experience/qualifications to apply to PGY2 slots in their residency of choice so they don't have to overcome a year of doing nothing on their residency application if they didn't match; others plan on being a GP and don't want board certification. there's a few wild eyed madmen that are proclaiming a phenomenal amount of non-BC/BE physicians in the country and that there's a trend that way --- I've not seen evidence of it -- most consumers (and that's what medicine is now) want some sort of "stamp of approval" and that takes the form of BC -- not right, not wrong, just the way it is.

So why has the role of the general practitioner declined?

You would think that a full licensed MD even withough residency would be more thoroughly trained and therefore advantageous over PA's or NP's, no?
 
You would think that a full licensed MD even withough residency would be more thoroughly trained and therefore advantageous over PA's or NP's, no?

Why do you assume that?

One year of residency barely scratches the surface. Even for general practice.
 
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Why do you assume that?

One year of residency barely scratches the surface. Even for general practice.

Barely scratches the surface compared to a residency trained MD... but still way more than an NP or PA who already practice independently with less medical training and no residencies
 
Why do you assume that?

One year of residency barely scratches the surface. Even for general practice.

I don't mean for them to replace residency trained physicians, but rather for them to work in clinics and general settings to help fill the gap where physicians are needed, such as the role of what the NP and PA were designed for
 
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Direct supervision. Inquire when you need help.

If you want to be a primary care physician do it the right way and finish residency. You owe it to your patients. Don't be a referral muppet.
 
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Direct supervision. Inquire when you need help.

If you want to be a primary care physician do it the right way and finish residency. You owe it to your patients. Don't be a referral muppet.

Yes, but the reality is that nps and pas are not doing so, in most states they are now practicing independently
 
but still way more than an NP or PA who already practice independently with less medical training and no residencies

Based on what? Bias? Show data, or just admit that you pulled that factoid out of your ass.
 
Yes, but the reality is that nps and pas are not doing so, in most states they are now practicing independently

You're so "knowledgeable" about the training of MDs, NPs, and PAs...but still ask stupid questions about the difference between IM, FM, and GP...?

:troll:
 
You're so "knowledgeable" about the training of MDs, NPs, and PAs...but still ask stupid questions about the difference between IM, FM, and GP...?

:troll:

I meant in terms of what each is legally allowed to do... damn you guys are so quick to get on your high horse and get "troll happy" around here.
 
Based on what? Bias? Show data, or just admit that you pulled that factoid out of your ass.

Np's and PA's practice independently in most states... so you need to tell me that they are more highly trained than someone in PGY1 oh smart one?
 
Np's and PA's practice independently in most states

Um...no, they don't.

There are NO states where PAs can practice independently, and NPs have unrestricted practice in only 21 states (so, not "most"). Even in those states, most are supervised to some extent simply by virtue of working in collaborative practices alongside physicians. Many are employed by physicians.

Nobody is debating the differences in training. The issue is the preparedness for unsupervised practice. The mere fact that an MD/DO can be licensed after PGY-1 does not mean they're prepared for unsupervised practice, even though the law allows it.
 
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Um...no, they don't.

There are NO states where PAs can practice independently, and NPs have unrestricted practice in only 21 states (so, not "most"). Even in those states, most are supervised to some extent simply by virtue of working in collaborative practices alongside physicians. Many are employed by physicians.

Nobody is debating the differences in training. The issue is the preparedness for unsupervised practice. The mere fact that an MD/DO can be licensed after PGY-1 does not mean they're prepared for unsupervised practice, even though the law allows it.

And some would argue that even after residency, depending on the strength of the residency/resident, some DO/MD's may not be ready for unsupervised practice....
 
Based on what? Bias? Show data, or just admit that you pulled that factoid out of your ass.

*Ahem --- BD, far be it from me to offer a slight correction in this esteemed forum of higher thought, but as physicians, should we not say/type "external anal sphincter" rather than ass in order not to upset the alleged learned colleagues with whom we must continue to interact in our quest to advance the body of medicine both in science and art form? :cool:
 
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*Ahem --- BD, far be it from me to offer a slight correction in this esteemed forum of higher thought, but as physicians, should we not say/type "external anal sphincter" rather than ass in order not to upset the alleged learned colleagues with whom we must continue to interact in our quest to advance the body of medicine both in science and art form? :cool:

I was trying to use language the OP/troll would understand. Clearly, they didn't have a clue about anything medical.

But*, point taken. ;)

*Pun intended.
 
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