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This question is driving me crazy. If their supposed answer is correct, then why do people take suboxone??????
This is from the AAMC Official guide questions, the Psych/Soc section.
Question 14
If heroin-dependent rats were injected with naloxone, the naloxone would:
A. Reduce the reinforcing effects of heroin.
This is incorrect because an endorphin antagonist will increase the reinforcing effects of heroin, not decrease these effects.
B. Increase the reinforcing effects of heroin.
This is correct. As naloxone is an endorphin antagonist (it inhibits the functioning of endorphins), it would increase the reinforcing effects of heroin such that heroin-dependent rats would be more likely to seek heroin.
So, if the naloxone knocks off the heroin and prevents it from binding to the mu receptors, there are going to be NO reinforcing effects of the heroin.... That's my reasoning for choosing A.
And btw, the passage gives no information about the short half-life of naloxone, nor the therapeutic dose, so I don't know whether to assume the rats are getting maintenance doses or a one time injection.
I've pasted their reasoning for B being correct, but I can't agree with it.
Can anyone steer me to think clearly about this?
This is from the AAMC Official guide questions, the Psych/Soc section.
Question 14
If heroin-dependent rats were injected with naloxone, the naloxone would:
A. Reduce the reinforcing effects of heroin.
This is incorrect because an endorphin antagonist will increase the reinforcing effects of heroin, not decrease these effects.
B. Increase the reinforcing effects of heroin.
This is correct. As naloxone is an endorphin antagonist (it inhibits the functioning of endorphins), it would increase the reinforcing effects of heroin such that heroin-dependent rats would be more likely to seek heroin.
So, if the naloxone knocks off the heroin and prevents it from binding to the mu receptors, there are going to be NO reinforcing effects of the heroin.... That's my reasoning for choosing A.
And btw, the passage gives no information about the short half-life of naloxone, nor the therapeutic dose, so I don't know whether to assume the rats are getting maintenance doses or a one time injection.
I've pasted their reasoning for B being correct, but I can't agree with it.
Can anyone steer me to think clearly about this?